Security Market in India: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Indian Economy)
25 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the security market are on this page, from 2000 to 2025. UPSC asks how bonds and stocks differ, what beta measures, what the Sensex is, who can trade in corporate bonds and what Participatory Notes and inflation-indexed bonds are. The explanations define each term so that investment questions can be solved logically.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1–10 of 25 questions
Browse by year
UPSC 2025Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q1. With reference to investments, consider the following: 1. Bonds 2. Hedge Funds 3. Stocks 4. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
Explanation
Alternative Investment Fund or AIF means any fund established or incorporated in India which is a privately pooled investment vehicle which collects funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian or foreign, for investing it in accordance with a defined investment policy for the benefit of its investors. AIF does not include funds covered under the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, SEBI (Collective Investment Schemes) Regulations, 1999 or any other regulations of the Board to regulate fund management activities. In what categories can an applicant seek registration as an AIF? Applicants can seek registration as an AIF in one of the following categories, and in sub-categories thereof, as may be applicable:
Category I AIF:
Venture capital funds (Including Angel Funds) SME Funds o Social Venture Funds Infrastructure funds Category II AIF Category III AIF Venture Capital: Venture capital funds invest in startups and emerging companies and are classified as Alternative Investment Funds under Indian regulations. What are Category I AIFs? AIFs which invest in start-up or early stage ventures or social ventures or SMEs or infrastructure or other sectors or areas which the government or regulators consider as socially or economically desirable and shall include venture capital funds, SME Funds, social venture funds, infrastructure funds and such other Alternative Investment Funds as may be specified. What are Category II AIFs? AIFs which do not fall in Category I and III and which do not undertake leverage or borrowing other than to meet day-to-day operational requirements and as permitted in the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. Various types of funds such as real estate funds, private equity funds (PE funds), funds for distressed assets, etc. are registered as Category II AIFs. Hedge Funds: Hedge funds fall under the category of Alternative Investment Funds. They pool capital from investors and use complex strategies including leverage, derivatives, and short selling, which differ from traditional investments. What are Category III AIFs? AIFs which employ diverse or complex trading strategies and may employ leverage including through investment in listed or unlisted derivatives. Various types of funds such as hedge funds, PIPE Funds, etc. are registered as Category III AIFs. Stocks: Stocks or equity shares represent ownership in companies and are considered traditional investments, not AIFs. Bonds: Bonds are considered traditional investment instruments and are not categorized as Alternative Investment Funds. They are debt securities issued by governments or corporations.
UPSC 2025Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q2. Consider the following statements: Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: In corporate finance and investing, bonds (debt investments) are typically viewed as safer and less volatile than stocks (equity investments). Bondholders have more certainty in their returns as they receive fixed interest payments and return of principal at maturity, whereas stockholders’ returns (dividends and share price appreciation) are uncertain and variable and depend on the company’s performance. In the event of financial trouble or bankruptcy, bond investors are among the first to be paid, whereas common stockholders often receive later, this safety net further reduces the risk for bondholders. In sum, stocks are inherently riskier than bonds, so bondholders face lower risk relative to stockholders, which is why they also often expect lower returns than equity investors as compensation for that lower risk.
Statement II is correct: Bondholders lend money to the company by purchasing its bonds, making them debtholders. Stockholders (shareholders) are owners of the company’s equity. In other words, buying a bond means one effectively acts as a lender to the firm, entitled to interest and principal repayment, whereas buying stock means you purchase a share of ownership in the firm, with claim to its residual profits.
Statement III is correct: In a company’s capital structure, bondholders have priority over stockholders when it comes to repayment, especially in distress or liquidation scenarios.
Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I: Bondholders are lenders to the company while stockholders are owners (Statement II), and bondholders have rights and claims on their investments compared to owners. Consequently, bondholders have more security: the company must meet its debt obligations to bondholders (or face default), and bondholders get priority in any repayment or liquidation (Statement III). These factors greatly reduce the risk to bond investors relative to equity investors. Stockholders, on the other hand, are residual claimants who are paid last and only after all obligations are met, they have no guaranteed returns. Because of this structure, investing in a company’s bonds is generally less risky than investing in its stock.
UPSC 2025Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q3. Consider the following statements: 1. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. 2. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time. 3. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India has emerged as a dominant player in the global equity options market. In 2023, Indian exchanges accounted for approximately 78% of global equity options trading volume, with 84.3 billion contracts traded, marking a 153% increase from the previous year. By April 2024, the combined volume of equity derivatives on the NSE and BSE constituted nearly 81% of global turnover. This surge reflects a significant boom in India’s equity options trading activity
Statement 2 is correct: India’s stock market has experienced substantial growth in recent years. On January 22, 2024, the combined market capitalization of Indian exchanges reached $4.33 trillion, surpassing Hong Kong’s $4.29 trillion, thereby making India the world’s fourth-largest stock market by market capitalization. This milestone underscores the rapid expansion and investor confidence in India’s equity markets.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India has strong regulatory bodies like the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) which actively regulate the securities market, including derivatives trading. SEBI issues guidelines, warnings, and investor education campaigns on the risks of options trading. It also takes action against unregistered financial advisors and fraudulent activities to protect retail investors.
Exam tip:
For S3, Claiming the absence of any regulator in a highly regulated financial market like India is highly implausible. Remember SEBI! Hence S3 is most likely false, giving option A as correct.
UPSC 2024Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q4. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities 1. Insurance Companies 2. Pension Funds 3. Retail Investors Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Option 1 is correct: Insurance companies in India can trade in both Corporate Bonds and Government Securities (G-Secs). The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) allows insurance companies to invest in Government Bonds, Corporate Bonds, and Infrastructure Bonds, subject to prescribed limits.
Option 2 is correct: Pension funds are allowed to invest in both government securities (G-Secs) and corporate bonds. For example, the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) permits pension funds under the National Pension System (NPS) to invest in Government Bonds, State Development Loans (SDLs), and Corporate Debt. Since pension funds focus on long-term stability, they often prefer G-Secs, which offer secure and steady returns for retirement benefits.
Option 3 is correct: Retail investors can trade in both corporate bonds and government securities. The RBI’s Retail Direct Scheme enables individuals to directly buy and sell government securities. Corporate bonds are available for trading on the debt segments of BSE and NSE, and retail investors can access them through debt mutual funds, bond markets, and stock exchanges.
Additional insight:
Government Securities (G-Secs) are debt instruments issued by the government to finance fiscal needs. They include Treasury Bills (short-term) and dated securities (long-term) and are considered low-risk investments due to government backing. Corporate Bonds are debt instruments issued by companies to raise capital from investors. In return, the company promises to pay periodic interest and repay the principal at maturity. They carry varying levels of risk depending on the issuer’s creditworthiness. The government securities (G-Sec) market was traditionally dominated by large institutional investors. However, regulatory measures have encouraged smaller entities like cooperative banks, small pension funds, and provident funds to invest in G-Secs. Institutions such as cooperative banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are also required to hold G-Secs as part of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requirement. To expand participation, the RBI launched the Retail Direct Scheme, allowing individual investors to directly buy and sell G-Secs.
Exam tip:
You can try, The "NOT" approach for all statements, this tests the improbability of negating a statement--if denying its impact seems highly unlikely, the statement is plausibly true. How can you stop someone from trading? Hence likely all are true.
UPSC 2024Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q5. Consider the following: 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) 2. Motor vehicles 3. Currency swap Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
Explanation
A financial instrument is a contractual agreement that creates a financial asset for one party and a corresponding financial liability or equity instrument for another party. Options 1 and 3 are correct:
Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) are considered financial instruments as they represent a portfolio of assets (stocks, bonds, or commodities) and are traded on stock exchanges. They are intangible assets that provide claims to future cash flows or ownership interests. A currency swap is a financial instrument used in international finance. It involves the exchange of principal and interest payments in different currencies between two parties, helping manage foreign exchange risks. Option 2 is incorrect: Motor vehicles are not financial instruments. They are physical assets used for transportation and do not represent any contractual claim to future cash flows or monetary value in financial markets.
UPSC 2024Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q6. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
The United States government issues Treasury Bonds (T-Bonds) as a way to borrow money. These bonds are considered one of the safest investments globally because they are backed by the full faith and credit of the US government.
Statement I is incorrect: Even in a case of a default by the U.S. government, U.S. Treasury bondholders retain their legal right to payment. A default would generally cause delays or restructuring but would not cancel bondholder claims. The U.S. government remains legally obligated to repay its debts, and investors can seek legal remedies, though enforcement is complex for sovereign debt. If the government misses payments, both American and foreign bondholders can sue in U.S. courts, such as district courts or the U.S. Court of Federal Claims, to enforce their claims.
Statement II is correct: US Treasury Bonds are not backed by physical assets like gold, land, or commodities. Instead, their value rests on the trust and faith in the US government’s financial stability and its ability to repay debts through taxation and economic growth. The US dollar’s status as the world’s re-serve currency further reinforces this trust, but there are no tangible assets pledged against US debt.
Additional insight:
U.S. Treasury Bonds (T-Bonds) are long-term debt securities issued by the U.S. government with maturities of 20 to 30 years. They are considered low-risk investments as they are backed by the "full faith and credit" of the U.S. government. T-Bonds offer fixed interest payments semi-annually and are used for funding government operations, defense, and development projects. As of February 2025, the U.S. debt stands at approximately $36 trillion, equivalent to 124% of GDP. It arises from budget deficits when spending exceeds revenue. The debt is financed primarily through Treasury securities and is not backed by hard assets but by the government’s ability to tax and borrow. Persistent deficits, rising interest costs, and mandatory spending on programs like Social Security and Medicare pose long-term fiscal challenges.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q7. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002". Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect: Both interest and dividend income received from InvITs are taxable in the hands of investors. Interest income is treated as "income from other sources" under the Income Tax Act, 1961, and is subject to tax as per the applicable income tax slab rates. Dividends are taxable in the hands of investors, and the InvITs are required to deduct Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) before distributing dividends as of the current tax regime (post-2020).
Statement II is correct: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002(SARFAESI Act). This recognition allows InvITs to raise funds by issuing debt securities and provides a legal framework for lenders to enforce security interests in case of default. The SARFAESI Act is a critical legislation for the financial sector, enabling banks and financial institutions to recover non-performing assets (NPAs) efficiently.
Additional insight:
The tax treatment of InvITs is governed by the Income Tax Act, 1961 and the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014. The inclusion of InvITs as borrowers under the SARFAESI Act was a significant step to enhance the credibility and flexibility of InvITs as a financing vehicle for infrastructure projects.
Exam tip:
What is the logic for exempting InvITs from taxes? None!, hence likely false.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q8. Consider the following markets: 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Money Market 3. Treasury Bill Market 4. Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets?
Explanation
Capital markets are financial markets where long-term debt or equity-backed securities are bought and sold. They facilitate the raising of capital for businesses, governments, and other entities. Capital markets include:
Government Bond Market: Government bonds are long-term debt instruments issued by the government to finance its expenditures. They are part of the capital market because they have maturities typically longer than one year. Stock Market: The stock market is a quintessential part of the capital market, as it deals with the buying and selling of equity shares, which represent ownership in companies. Markets Not Included in Capital Markets:
Call money market is part of the money market, not the capital market. It deals with short-term funds (typically with maturities of 1 day to 14 days) used for interbank lending and borrowing. It is used to meet short-term liquidity requirements. Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term debt instruments issued by the government with maturities of less than one year (usually 91 days, 182 days, or 364 days) which are part of the money market.
Exam tip:
Isn’t capital market supposed to be long term investment? Yes! and isn’t Call Money(as its name suggest) and Treasury bill are short term money instruments? Yes, Then we can eliminate these safely!
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q9. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to:
Explanation
In finance, beta is a numerical metric that gauges a stock’s volatility in relation to overall market fluctuations. It represents systematic risk, which stems from broader market movements, rather than company-specific factors. A benchmark index like the S&P 500 is assigned a beta value of 1.0 which serves as a reference point for evaluating individual stocks:
Beta > 1.0: The stock experiences greater volatility than the market. For instance, a beta of 1.3 implies that the stock is 30% more volatile than the market. Beta = 1.0: The stock moves in sync with the market. Beta < 1.0: The stock is less volatile compared to the market. Investors use beta to determine how a stock contributes to the overall risk of a diversified portfolio. A higher beta indicates greater risk but also the potential for higher returns, while a lower beta signifies reduced risk and lower expected returns. This concept plays a key role in the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) which estimates an asset’s expected return based on its beta and the anticipated market returns.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q10. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)"? 1. The government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. 2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. 3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Inflation-Indexed Bonds is a debt market securities offered by the government to protect the savings from inflation and offer positive real rates of returns. Since Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs) provide inflation protection to investors, the government can offer these bonds with lower coupon rates compared to traditional bonds. The inflation adjustment compensates for the lower fixed interest.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The existing tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on IIBs. There will be no special tax treatment for these bonds.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2025
(b) Only two
2
2025
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
3
2025
(a) I and II only
4
2024
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5
2024
(d) 1 and 3 only
6
2024
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
7
2023
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
8
2023
(b) Only two
9
2023
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
10
2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
What UPSC has tested in Security Market in India
Debenture holders of a company are its creditors, not owners.
Beta is a numeric value that measures the sensitivity of a security’s return to movements in the market.
A rise in the Sensex means an overall rise in the prices of the shares of the thirty companies in the index.
Participatory Notes are associated with Foreign Institutional Investors.
The SDR, the Special Drawing Right of the IMF, is treated as an artificial currency.
Foreign Direct Investment is a largely non-debt creating capital flow.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Security Market in India?
This page covers 25 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Security Market in India (Indian Economy), asked from 2000 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
What does beta measure?
The sensitivity of a security’s return to the market’s return. A beta above one means the stock tends to move more than the market, and a beta below one means it moves less, so it is a measure of market risk.
Are debenture holders owners or creditors of a company?
Creditors. A debenture is a loan to the company that pays interest and is repaid on maturity, whereas shareholders are the owners and receive dividends only if the company declares them.
What is an inflation-indexed bond?
A bond whose principal or interest is adjusted for inflation, so that investors’ returns hold their real value. It benefits investors by protecting purchasing power and lets governments borrow at a lower real rate.