Indian Economy: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
392 previous year UPSC Prelims Indian Economy questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, in 14 chapters. Banking Sector in India is the largest, followed by External Sector, Industry, Agriculture and Human Development. Recent papers favour statement-based questions on institutions, schemes and money and banking concepts. Filter by chapter to revise one area, or by year to see how a single paper tested the economy.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 111–120 of 392 questions
Browse Indian Economy chaptersBrowse by year
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q111. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
Explanation
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) operates the National Financial Switch (NFS) which is the largest network of shared ATMs in India which connects over 265,000 ATMs as of January,2025. NFS facilitates interoperable cash withdrawal, card-to-card funds transfer, and interoperable cash deposit transactions, among other services thereby linking ATMs across the country.
Additional insight:
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) was established by the RBI and the Indian Banks’ Association under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 to enhance India’s payment infrastructure. It is incorporated as a "Not for Profit" company under Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of the 2013 Act). The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank Limited, HDFC Bank Limited, Citibank and HSBC.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q112. Which one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes seen in news?
Explanation
The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a fee charged to merchants by banks or payment gateways for accepting payments from their customers and processing digital transactions such as payments made through debit cards, credit cards or other electronic means. It is typically a small percentage of the transaction amount and is used to cover the costs of processing the payment.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q113. Consider the following statements: 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues. 2. CAR is decided by each individual bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
The Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) measures a bank’s ability to handle risks like credit and operational risks while meeting its obligations. Simply put, it acts as a ‘cushion’ to absorb potential losses, protecting depositors and lenders. Regulators set and monitor minimum CAR levels to maintain trust in the banking system and ensure stability. A strong CAR shows that a bank can handle losses without affecting its financial commitments, reducing risks from defaults or unexpected economic challenges. The capital adequacy ratio is computed by dividing the total capital of a bank by its risk-weighted assets. This is why the CAR is also called the Capital to Risk (Weighted) Assets Ratio (CRAR).
Statement 1 is correct: Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities.
Statement 2 is incorrect: CAR is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process. The Re-serve Bank of India (RBI) mandates specific CAR requirements to ensure banks are adequately capitalised. This is aligned with the Basel III norms, which are international regulatory frameworks designed to improve the regulation, supervision, and risk management within the banking sector. Indian banks must ad-here to these norms to operate effectively both domestically and internationally.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q114. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
Explanation
Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law which the creditor is obligated to accept towards repayment of a debt. In other words, legal tender refers to the type of currency that the government has officially declared to be acceptable for conducting financial transactions within a country. Legal tender varies from country to country as different countries define and regulate their legal tender according to their monetary laws and policies. For instance, the U.S. dollar is legal tender in the United States, whereas for Eurozone countries the legal tender is euro. In India, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is authorized to issue banknotes under RBI Act of 1934, which emphasises that ‘every banknote issued by RBI, unless withdrawn from circulation, shall be legal tender at any place in India for the amount expressed on it’. Legal tender can be categorized as either limited or unlimited. In India, coins are considered limited legal tender and currency notes are considered unlimited legal tender.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q115. Consider the following statements: 1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities. 2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the state Governments. 3. Treasury bills are issued at a discount from the par value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of In-dia (RBI) manages and services both Government of India (Central Government) securities and State Government securities. These are called State Development Loans (SDLs). RBI acts as the debt manager for both the Government of India (GoI) and State Governments.
Statement 2 is correct: In India only the Central Government issues Treasury Bills (T-bills). State Governments do not issue T-bills. They raise funds through bonds known as State Development Loans (SDLs).
Statement 3 is correct: Treasury Bills (T-Bills) are issued at a discount to their face value (par value) and redeemed at face value upon maturity. The difference between the issue price and the face value represents the interest earned by the investor. For example a T-Bill with a face value of 100 might be issued at 98 and the investor earns 2 as interest.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q116. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements: 1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Capital infusion into Public Sector Banks (PSBs) over the last decade has not followed a steady upward trend. It has been cyclical driven primarily by specific challenges such as rising non-performing assets (NPAs). The government has made substantial infusions during critical periods while scaling back during others, depending on the banks’ requirements and fiscal constraints.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2017 five associate banks (State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Patiala, and State Bank of Tra-vancore) along with Bharatiya Mahila Bank were merged with State Bank of India (SBI). This merger was aimed at improving operational efficiency, reducing costs, and enhancing the balance sheet of SBI.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Taxation
Q117. Consider the following items: 1. Cereal grains hulled 2. Chicken eggs cooked 3. Fish processed and canned 4. Newspapers containing advertising material Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
Explanation
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India classifies goods and services into various tax slabs, with certain essential items exempted to ensure affordability.
Option (c) is correct:
Unprocessed cereal grains including those that are hulled are exempted from GST as they are considered basic food staples. Cooked eggs are exempt from GST aligning with the tax exemption on basic food products. Newspapers irrespective of whether they contain advertising material are exempt from GST to support the dissemination of information. Processed and canned fish are subject to GST as they are considered value-added products
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q118. With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act. 2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements". Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
In 2016, India introduced a 6% Equalization Levy targeting income from online advertisement services provided by non-resident entities to Indian businesses. This measure aimed to tax digital transactions and level the playing field between domestic and foreign service providers. In 2020 it was expanded to include a 2% levy on e-commerce transactions by non-resident operators.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Equalization Levy was introduced through the Finance Act, 2016 as a separate chapter and is not part of the Income Tax Act. This distinction ensures that the levy operates independently of the existing income tax framework.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Non-resident entities cannot claim a tax credit for this levy in their home countries which can potentially lead to double taxation. It doesn’t fall within the scope of Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs). Its exclusion from the Income Tax Act raises challenges regarding international tax credits and potential double taxation for foreign entities.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q119. India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to:
Explanation
India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, to comply with its obligations under the World Trade Organization (WTO). As a member of the WTO, India is bound by the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS), which sets minimum standards for the protection of various forms of intellectual property, including geographical indications (GIs). TRIPS Agreement prescribe the minimum standards of protection that WTO members must provide for GIs. These provisions require member countries to prevent the misuse of GIs and to ensure that only authorized users can use a GI on products originating from the specified region
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Human Development and Sustainable Development
Q120. Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables: 1. Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital. 2. Increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country. 3. Accumulation of tangible wealth. 4. Accumulation of intangible wealth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Human capital formation refers to the process of improving the knowledge, skills, and capacities of people, which enhances their productivity and contributes to economic growth. This involves education, training, healthcare, and other investments in people.
Statement 2 is correct: It directly reflects the essence of human capital formation, which focuses on increasing the knowledge, skill levels, and capacities of individuals.
Statement 4 is correct: Human capital is considered intangible wealth, as it represents non-physical assets like skills, education, and health, which contribute to economic productivity. Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect: These refer to the accumulation of physical or tangible capital (like machinery, infrastructure), which is different from human capital.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
111
2018
(c) National Payments Corporation of India
112
2018
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
113
2018
(a) 1 only
114
2018
(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
115
2018
(c) 2 and 3 only
116
2018
(b) 2 only
117
2018
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
118
2018
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
119
2018
(d) WTO
120
2018
(c) 2 and 4
What UPSC has tested in Indian Economy
Money and banking questions test how RBI tools work: repo, CRR, open market operations, lender of last resort and the Monetary Policy Committee.
Public finance questions often use small calculations, such as revenue deficit and fiscal deficit in the 2025 paper.
Institutions and publications are tested by who issues what, such as the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business or the IMF’s World Economic Outlook.
Agriculture and industry questions focus on schemes and prices: MSP, FRP, e-NAM, UDAY and the Rashtriya Gokul Mission.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Indian Economy?
This page covers 392 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Indian Economy, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Indian Economy chapters have the most questions?
Banking Sector in India has the most with 74 questions, then External Sector of India with 49, Industry with 44, Agriculture with 35 and Important Concepts in Economy and Human Development with 29 and 28.
How can I use these questions to prepare for the Economy section?
Take one chapter at a time using the Chapter filter, attempt the questions, and read the facts UPSC has tested at the end of the page. Repeat the banking and public finance chapters, since they are asked every year.
Are the 2025 Economy questions included?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s 19 Indian Economy questions, on revenue deficit, fiscal deficit, RBI income, RTGS and NEFT, bonds and stocks and the 15th Finance Commission, are included with explanations.