Indian Economy: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
392 previous year UPSC Prelims Indian Economy questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, in 14 chapters. Banking Sector in India is the largest, followed by External Sector, Industry, Agriculture and Human Development. Recent papers favour statement-based questions on institutions, schemes and money and banking concepts. Filter by chapter to revise one area, or by year to see how a single paper tested the economy.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 101–110 of 392 questions
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UPSC 2019Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q101. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of the Indian rupee?
Explanation
An expansionary monetary policy may lead to lower interest rates and thus flight of foreign capital from India (which would get better returns abroad). Also, such a policy may fuel inflation and higher imports through higher government spending and further cause a slide of the rupee. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect: As these include the likely measures the Government/ RBI would take to stop the slide of the Indian rupee:
Curbing imports of nonessential goods-and promoting exports would help control imports and thus the depreciation of the rupee. Masala bonds were brought in to curb the slide of rupee since the borrowing is rupee-dominated and does not put pressure on our currency through borrowing dollars. Easing external commercial borrowing (ECBs) will lead to higher borrowing abroad and would temporarily bridge the deficit of forex in India preventing the slide of rupee.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q102. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements: 1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. 2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. 3. AlIB does not have any members from outside Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: As of 2023 the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) had 105 member’s. As of January 2025 the AIIB boasts 110 approved members worldwide which indicates its extensive global reach.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the second-largest shareholder in AIIB and holds 7.5% of the voting shares. The largest shareholder is China with 26.5% of the voting shares.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The AIIB’s membership extends beyond Asia and includes countries from Europe, Africa and the Americas. For instance nations like Canada, Egypt, and France are members and reflects the bank’s global appeal.
Exam tip:
S1 and S2 itself contradicts, an organ of NITI and headed by FM, hence either is clearly false, eliminating options A and D. The name ""Financial stability" make the proba-bilty of S2 being true more.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q103. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis? 1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector 2. Increasing the government expenditure 3. Remittances from Indians abroad Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
A currency crisis occurs when a country’s currency faces a sudden and sharp depreciation, often due to speculative attacks or a loss of confidence in the economy. Several factors can contribute to reducing the risk of such a crisis:
Statement 1 is correct: India’s Information Technology (IT) sector is a major exporter of services, earning substantial foreign exchange. These earnings increase the supply of foreign currency in the country, strengthening the Indian rupee and mitigating the risk of a currency crisis.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While government spending is crucial for economic growth, excessive expenditure can lead to higher fiscal deficits. This may result in increased borrowing, potential inflationary pressures, and could negatively affect investor confidence, thereby increasing the risk of a currency crisis.
Statement 3 is correct: Remittances are funds sent by Indians working overseas back to India. These inflows add to the coun-try’s foreign exchange reserves, providing a buffer against currency volatility and reducing the risk of a currency crisis.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q104. Consider the following statements: 1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities. 2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the government does hold a portion of India’s external debt, the majority of it is owed by non-governmental entities, primarily corporations. As of end-March 2023, India’s total external debt stood at approximately USD 624.7 billion. Of this, the government’s external debt was about USD 130.8 billion, accounting for roughly 20.9% of the total external debt. The remaining 79.1% is owed by non-governmental entities, including private sector corporations and financial institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While a significant portion of In-dia’s external debt is indeed denominated in US dollars, it’s not all in US dollars. Indian entities also borrow in other currencies, such as Euros, Japanese Yen, and British Pounds, among others. Diversification of currency exposure is a com-mon practice in debt management. India’s external debt is de-nominated in various currencies. As of end-March 2023, 53.1% of the debt was in US dollars, 31.1% in Indian rupees, 5.7% in Japanese yen, 3.5% in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), 2.9% in euros, and the remaining 3.7% in other currencies.
Exam tip:
"Most" and "All" are both danger words in UPSC -- always challenge them unless you’re 100% sure.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q105. Consider the following statements: 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries. 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: PPP is an economic concept that compares the value of currencies by examining the cost of a standard "basket of goods" across different countries. It determines the exchange rate required for one currency to buy the same quantity of goods and services as it would in another country.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As of the latest available data, India ranks as the third-largest economy globally in terms of GDP based on PPP. According to the International Monetary Fund’s World Economic Outlook, India’s GDP (PPP) is approximately $13.17 trillion, placing it behind China and the United States.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · Human Development and Sustainable Development
Q106. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because:
Explanation
According to the World Bank, Poverty is pronounced deprivation in well-being and comprises many dimensions. It includes low incomes and the inability to acquire the basic goods and services necessary for survival with dignity. The new extreme poverty line of $2.15 per person per day, which replaces the $1.90 poverty line, is based on 2017 PPPs
Option (b) is correct: The official poverty line in India is determined based on the minimum income required to meet basic consumption needs, primarily food, adjusted for other essentials like housing, education, and healthcare. Since the cost of living and price levels differ across states due to factors like inflation, regional disparities, and market conditions, the poverty line is higher in states where the price levels are higher. For instance, states with higher urbanization or living costs like Maharashtra or Delhi might have a higher poverty line compared to states with lower living costs like Bihar or Odisha.
Additional insight:
According to the Planning Commission, the national poverty line for rural regions in 2011-12 was estimated to be Rs. 816 per capita per month in rural areas and Rs. 1,000 per capita per month in urban areas using the Tendulkar methodology.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Economic Growth
Q107. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP does not connote a higher level of economic development, if:
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect: If industrial growth lags behind agriculture, job creation slows, leading to underemployment and lower productivity. However, it doesn’t hinder development un-less stagnation sets in. For instance, the Green Revolution initially saw agriculture outpace industry but still spurred economic development, improving food security and livelihoods.
Option (b) is incorrect: Slower agricultural growth can lead to food shortages and rural distress, especially in agrarian economies. However, in modern economies, a shift from agriculture to industry, like in South Korea, can drive economic development through job creation and higher incomes.
Option (c) is correct: Economic development is a broader concept than economic growth. While an increase in absolute and per capita real Gross National Product (GNP) indicates economic growth, true development includes improvements in living standards, employment opportunities, and poverty reduction. If poverty and unemployment increase despite GNP growth, it suggests that the benefits of growth are not being equitably distributed, leading to an absence of real economic development.
Option (d) is incorrect: A trade imbalance doesn’t always signal poor development. If imports rise for capital goods or technology, it can boost future growth. For example, China’s imports of advanced machinery in the 1990s aided in its economic development. However, a persistent trade deficit without export growth, like in some developing nations, can strain reserves, financial stability and thus stall economic development.
Exam tip:
Economic development just money in the economy. It = money and well-being in the hands of the people. So, un-less people are earning, employed, and lifted from poverty, GNP growth doesn’t count as real development. Only
option C aligns with this simple definition.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q108. Consider the following statements: 1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years. 2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
India holds a significant position in the global oilseeds industry, contributing about 10% to the world’s total production. However, the demand for edible oils (including those derived from oilseeds, aside from palm oil) greatly exceeds domestic production, resulting in a reliance on imports for nearly 60% of the required supply.
Statement 1 is correct: With respect to the year 2018, Over the past five years, India’s edible oil imports have consistently surpassed domestic production, highlighting a significant dependence on foreign sources to meet consumption needs. This rising trend in imports persisted through 2023-24, reaching approximately 15.96 MMT. Meanwhile, domestic production has remained largely stagnant, accounting for only about 40% of the country’s total edible oil consumption. This imbalance highlights the widening gap between supply and demand, making large-scale imports essential to meet national requirements.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian government may impose customs duties on imported edible oils, adjusting rates to balance consumer interests and support domestic farmers. For instance, effective from September 14, 2024, a 20% basic customs duty was imposed on crude palm oil, crude soybean oil, and crude sunflower oil to support local oilseed farmers.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q109. Consider the following: 1. Areca nut 2. Barley 3. Coffee 4. Finger millet 5. Groundnut 6. Sesamum 7. Turmeric The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
Explanation
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a government-set price for crops. It helps prevent distress sales when market prices fall below this level. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) makes recommendations on MSP. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) announces the MSP based on these recommendations. MSP ensures that farmers receive a fair income.
Option (b) is correct: The government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane. Amongst the above, Barley, Finger millet, Groundnut, Sesamum are part of MSP crop list. Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect: Areca nut, coffee, and turmeric being commercial crops, are typically not covered under MSP.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q110. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements: 1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. 2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money) app allows users to transfer money to anyone with a UPI (Unified Payments Interface)-enabled bank account. This is achieved through a UPI ID, mobile number, or QR code which makes it a seamless and widely accessible digital payment solution. It is a government-backed app designed to facilitate digital payments which promoting interoperability among various banks.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Both systems adhere to the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) mandate for two-factor authentication to enhance the security of digital transactions. Chip-PIN Debit Card typically employs two-factor authentication (2FA) not four-factor:
Possession Factor: The physical debit card.
Knowledge Factor: The Personal Identification Number (PIN) known to the user. BHIM App also utilizes two-factor authentication:
Possession Factor: The mobile device registered with the user’s bank account. Knowledge Factor: The UPI PIN set by the user.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
101
2019
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
102
2019
(a) 1 only
103
2019
(b) 1 and 3 only
104
2019
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
105
2019
(a) 1 only
106
2019
(b) Price levels vary from State to State
107
2018
(c) poverty and unemployment increase.
108
2018
(a) 1 only
109
2018
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
110
2018
(a) 1 only
What UPSC has tested in Indian Economy
Money and banking questions test how RBI tools work: repo, CRR, open market operations, lender of last resort and the Monetary Policy Committee.
Public finance questions often use small calculations, such as revenue deficit and fiscal deficit in the 2025 paper.
Institutions and publications are tested by who issues what, such as the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business or the IMF’s World Economic Outlook.
Agriculture and industry questions focus on schemes and prices: MSP, FRP, e-NAM, UDAY and the Rashtriya Gokul Mission.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Indian Economy?
This page covers 392 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Indian Economy, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Indian Economy chapters have the most questions?
Banking Sector in India has the most with 74 questions, then External Sector of India with 49, Industry with 44, Agriculture with 35 and Important Concepts in Economy and Human Development with 29 and 28.
How can I use these questions to prepare for the Economy section?
Take one chapter at a time using the Chapter filter, attempt the questions, and read the facts UPSC has tested at the end of the page. Repeat the banking and public finance chapters, since they are asked every year.
Are the 2025 Economy questions included?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s 19 Indian Economy questions, on revenue deficit, fiscal deficit, RBI income, RTGS and NEFT, bonds and stocks and the 15th Finance Commission, are included with explanations.