3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 941–950 of 3238 questions
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UPSC 2016Modern History · Administrative Changes after 1857
Q941. The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to:
Explanation
Montague-Chelmsford Proposals had the scheme of constitutional reforms, known as the Montagu-Chelmsford (or Mont-Ford) Reforms, which led to the enactment of the Government of India Act of 1919. It introduced diarchy (rule of two individuals/parties) at the provincial government level. The diarchy was implemented in eight provinces: Assam, Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, Central Provinces, United Provinces, Bombay, Madras and Punjab.
UPSC 2016Geography · Agriculture
Q942. Which of the following is/are the advantages /advantages of practising drip irrigation? 1. Reduction in weed 2. Reduction in soil salinity 3. Reduction in soil erosion Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Drip irrigation is a highly efficient water-saving irrigation technique where water is directly supplied to the plant roots through a network of pipes, valves, and emitters.
Statement 1 is correct: Drip irrigation delivers water only to plant roots, preventing water wastage in surrounding soil areas. Since weeds grow in moist conditions, less water in non-target areas leads to reduced weed growth.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Drip irrigation does not reduce soil salinity. Instead it may lead to salt accumulation near the root zone over time due to limited leaching of salts from the soil. Flood irrigation is more effective in reducing soil salinity as it washes away excess salts.
Statement 3 is correct: Since drip irrigation supplies water at a slow and controlled rate there is minimal surface runoff, preventing soil erosion. Unlike traditional irrigation methods like flood or sprinkler irrigation, which cause water runoff and soil displacement, drip irrigation keeps soil structure intact.
Exam tip:
For S1, "Drip" means water only near plants and not for weeds hence less likely weeds, likely true. For S3, Slow drip=no flow=no force= hence no erosion, likely true. This gives option C as correct.
UPSC 2016Environment and Ecology · Species
Q943. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a breed found in India? 1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater. 2. It survives by grazing on mangroves. 3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Kharai camels have the remarkable ability to swim in seawater and feed on saline plants and mangroves. This adaptation gives them their name, "Kharai." They are considered the only domesticated camel breed that thrives in both marine and desert ecosystems. They were identified as a separate breed by the National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) in recent years.
Statement 2 is correct: Kharai camels are known to feed on mangroves and other salty marine plants found on offshore islands. To access this unique food source, they can swim for several hours in seawater.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Kharai camels are domesticated and play an essential role for local communities, often being used for transportation and various other purposes in the coastal and desert regions of Gujarat.
UPSC 2016Environment and Ecology · Species
Q944. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India. 2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of South India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
‘Red Sanders’ are known for their rich hue and therapeutic properties. They are in high demand across Asia, particularly in China and Japan for use in cosmetics and medicinal products as well as for making furniture, woodcraft and musical instruments. The main threats that Red Sanders face are illicit felling for smuggling, forest fires, cattle grazing and other anthropogenic threats.
Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders is an endemic tree species native to the Eastern Ghats, specifically found in the forests of Andhra Pradesh. It thrives in rocky, degraded, and fallow lands with red soil and a hot, dry climate.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It occurs in the forest formation which is classified as "Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests". The tree is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List, due to over-exploitation of its timber and habitat loss. Efforts are being made to protect the tree’s habitats and to promote sustainable harvesting practices.
UPSC 2016Environment and Ecology · Species
Q945. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?
Explanation
India is home to nine hornbill species, about one-fifth of the 50+ species worldwide. While mainly frugivores, some also consume small mammals, reptiles, and birds. The Great Indian Hornbill primarily inhabits tropical evergreen forests and is found mostly in the Western Ghats and Nilgiris. It relies on large trees with cavities for nesting and roosting.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q946. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit? 1. Reducing revenue expenditure 2. Introducing new welfare schemes 3. Rationalising subsidies 4. Reducing import duty Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
A budget deficit occurs when government expenses exceed revenue. It can be used as an indicator of the financial health of a country. It is a term more commonly used to refer to government spending and receipts rather than businesses or individuals. When a budget deficit occurs, it means that the current expenses surpass the income generated from regular operations. To correct its nation’s budget deficit, often referred to as a fiscal deficit, a government may cut back on certain expenditures or increase revenue-generating activities.
Statement 1 is correct: Reducing the revenue expenditure will certainly help in bridging the gap. Reducing revenue expenditure (such as government spending on salaries, interest payments, and subsidies) directly reduces the fiscal deficit. By controlling unproductive expenditure, the government can balance its budget more effectively.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Introducing new welfare schemes will most likely result in increasing expenditure and so will expanding industries which would require capital infusion. These steps will increase the budget deficit.
Statement 3 is correct: Rationalizing subsidies (for instance, by cutting unnecessary subsidies or targeting them better) can help reduce the fiscal deficit. Subsidies consume a significant portion of government revenue, and streamlining them would lead to savings.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Reducing import duties can reduce government revenue (as import duties are a source of income). This could increase the fiscal deficit if the loss in revenue isn’t compensated by other measures or increased economic activity.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q947. Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India? 1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc. 2. Loans received from foreign governments 3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Capital Budget consists of capital receipts (like disinvestment, borrowing, loans from public or foreign governments, Reserve Bank of India, etc) and capital expenditure (like expenditure on development of machinery, health facilities, etc). Capital budgeting implies setting targets for projects/schemes to ensure maximum profitability.
Statement 1 is correct: Capital Expenditure includes the expenditure on the acquisition of land, building, machinery, equipment, creating assets such as roads and hospitals, repayment of government borrowings.
Statement 2 is correct: Capital receipts components are Loan borrowings, disinvestments, funds received from the issue of shares or debentures, etc.
Statement 3 is correct: Loans, and advances by the central government to state and union territory governments, etc. are also included in the capital budget of the Government of India.
Additional insight:
The capital budget is divided into two parts i.e. capital receipts and capital expenditure. Capital Receipts: Capital receipts refer to incoming cash flows. They can be both non-debt and debt receipts. Loans from the general public, foreign governments and RBI form a major part of capital receipts. Capital Expenditure: Capital expenditure is the expenditure on the development of machinery, equipment, building, health facilities, acquisition of assets like land, research & development, education, etc.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q948. With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements: 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog. 2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister. 3. It monitors macroprudential supervision of the economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was set up by the government in December 2010. It serves as the top forum for financial matters. The FSDC was established well before the NITI Aayog came into existence.
Statement 2 is correct: The Chairman of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) is the Union Finance Minister.
Statement 3 is correct: The Council monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy, which includes functioning of large financial conglomerates.
Additional insight:
The Chairman of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) is the Union Finance Minister and its members include:
The heads of financial sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA & IRDAI) Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, Secretary, Department of Financial Services, Chief Economic Adviser. The Council can invite experts to its meeting if required. Functions of the FSDC:
To improve inter-regulatory coordination, institu-tionalise financial sector development, and strengthen the system for preserving financial stability. To monitor macro-prudential supervision of the economy. It assesses the functioning of the large financial conglomerates.
Exam tip:
S1 and S2 itself contradicts, an organ of NITI and headed by FM, hence either is clearly false, eliminating options A and D. The name ""Financial stability" make the probability of S2 being true more.
UPSC 2016Polity · Governor
Q949. Consider the following statements: 1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State. 2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chief Secretary is ‘chosen’ by the Chief Minister. As the appointment of Chief Secretary is an executive action of the Chief Minister, it is taken in the name of the Governor of the State.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Though the Administrative Reforms Commission, in its report on State Administration in 1969, had recommended that a Chief Secretary should have a minimum tenure of three to four years, there is no fixed tenure for the post of Chief Secretary of a State.
Exam tip:
S1 aligns with Function-person/organisation/ministry match trap as its easy to manipulate to make it false. Is it CM or Governor? For S2, "Fixed tenure", it can be negated by just real life observation of system around you. Such a top post bureaucratic having fixed tenure, wow!
UPSC 2016Polity · Local Government: Panchayats and Municipalities
Q950. Consider the following statements: 1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years. 2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Part IX of the Constitution deals with the Panchayati Raj System in India. The Panchayati Raj was constitutionalized in India through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. As per the act, no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than 25 years of ageif he has attained the age of 21 years. Therefore the minimum age is 21. The minimum age that a person should have to contest an election is 21 years.
Statement 2 is correct: Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution does not enjoy the full period of five years but remains in office only for the remaining period.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
941
2016
(d) constitutional reforms
942
2016
(c) 1 and 3 only
943
2016
(a) 1 and 2 only
944
2016
(a) 1 only
945
2016
(d) Western Ghats
946
2016
(c) 1 and 3 only
947
2016
(d) 1, 2 and 3
948
2016
(c) 2 and 3 only
949
2016
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
950
2016
(b) 2 only
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This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.