3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 821–830 of 3238 questions
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UPSC 2017Environment and Ecology · Environmental Organisations
Q821. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
TRAFFIC’s mission aligns with the long-term goals of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, envision-ing a world in harmony with nature. By 2050, it aims to ensure that biodiversity is valued, conserved, restored, and sustainably used, safeguarding ecosystem services, supporting a healthy planet, and providing essential benefits for all.
Statement 1 is incorrect: TRAFFIC is an independent non-gov-ernmental organization and operates as a strategic alliance between the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It is not a bureau under UNEP. TRAFFIC was established in 1976 as a specialist group of the Species Survival Commission of the IUCN. It later evolved into a strategic alliance between WWF and IUCN, focusing on monitoring wildlife trade to support conservation efforts.
Statement 2 is correct: TRAFFIC works to monitor the wildlife trade in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. It operates globally, with a network of offices and projects around the world, working to monitor and influence wildlife trade policies and practices.
UPSC 2017International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q822. Consider the following statements: The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at: 1. Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. 2. Enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. 3. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
The Soil Health Card (SHC) Scheme, launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, aims to provide farmers with soil health assessments to ensure optimal fertilizer usage and sustainable farming practices.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme does not focus on expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. Instead, it aims to enhance soil fertility and productivity through soil analysis.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme does not facilitate bank loan assessments for farmers. It primarily provides information on soil health to guide proper fertilizer use.
Statement 3 is correct: A key objective of the scheme is to check the overuse of fertilizers and promote balanced nutrient management to improve crop productivity and reduce soil degradation.
UPSC 2017International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q823. With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning. 2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: NSQF allows certification through multiple pathways, including formal, non-formal, and informal learning, ensuring recognition of prior learning (RPL) for workers who acquire skills outside formal institutions.
Statement 2 is correct: One of the key goals of NSQF is to ensure mobility between vocational and general education, allowing students and workers to shift between academic and skill-based careers seamlessly.
Additional insight:
The National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF) is a competency-based framework introduced in 2013 by the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) to standardize skill development, vocational education, and academic learning in India.
UPSC 2017Polity · Parliament
Q824. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by:
Explanation
For a candidate to stand for election to the Lok Sabha (the lower house of the Indian Parliament), certain eligibility criteria must be met, as stipulated by the Section 33 of Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Constitution of India such as:
1. The candidate must be a citizen of India
2. The age of the candidate should not less than 25 years of age
3. The candidate must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency.
Exam tip:
For A, "Residing" is too generic. Even a foreign national or a minor may reside in India -- does that qualify them to contest Lok Sabha? Clearly no. Hence false. For B, PM Modi contested from Varanasi despite being from Gujarat. Hence likely false. For D, A 5 year old is a Citizen of India, can S/He contest? Clearly No! Hence most logical choice left is option C.
UPSC 2017International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q825. Consider the following statements: 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) mandates certification for automotive tyres and tubes to ensure road safety and product quality. The BIS Standard Mark indicates compliance with ISI standards.
Statement 2 is incorrect: AGMARK is a certification issued by the Directorate of Marketing & Inspection (DMI), Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Government of India, and not by FAO. It ensures the quality of agricultural products like grains, pulses, and edible oils.
UPSC 2017Polity · Parliament
Q826. Consider the following statements: 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian constitution adopts the first-past-the-post (FPTP) system of elections where a candidate is declared elected if he/she gets a plurality of the votes, not necessarily 50 percent of the total votes polled. This means that the candidate with the highest number of votes among all contenders is declared the winner, even if they do not achieve an absolute majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 93, Speaker and Deputy speaker are elected by the house. This is a convention (not constitutional provision) that usually the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. This is an established convention to maintain a balance of power and ensure that the ruling party does not control both the key positions.
Exam tip:
For Option A, just required normal observation, Have candidates ever won elections even when many others contested, and they got only 30-35% votes?" Yes, frequently -- especially in multi-cornered contests. Hence S1 likely false. For S2, The phrase "as per the Constitution" is the trap.
UPSC 2017International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q827. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’? 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. 3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. 4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: A key goal is raising awareness about malnutrition, particularly for vulnerable groups like pregnant women and lactating mothers.
Statement 2 is correct: The mission aims to reduce anemia prevalence among children, adolescent girls, and women through dietary diversification and micronutrient supplementation.
Statement 3 is correct: The program promotes nutrient-rich foods, including millets and unpolished rice, to enhance dietary diversity.
Statement 4 is incorrect: While eggs are recommended as a protein source, the mission does not specifically promote poultry eggs.
UPSC 2017Polity · Parliament
Q828. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Questions hour 3. Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
The Parliament of India exercises control over the Council of Ministers (including the Prime Minister and other ministers) through various mechanisms such as:
Adjournment Motion is introduced to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance which is definite, factual, urgent, matter of recent occurrence. It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. It involves an element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. Question Hour is a crucial tool used by the members of Parliament to question the Council of Ministers regarding their decisions, actions, and the functioning of their departments. During Question Hour (usually the first hour of every sitting in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), members can ask both oral and written questions on any matter within the jurisdiction of the government. In addition to the ministers, the questions can also be asked to the private members. It has been mentioned in the Rule of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Supplementary questions are follow-up questions asked by members of Parliament after the initial answer provided by the Minister during Question Hour. These allow for further probing and clarification on issues raised in the original question. This process enables greater scrutiny and oversight of the functioning of the Council of Ministers. Three types of Question are asked namely:- Starred Question: Require oral answer and Supplementary question can be asked. Unstarred Question: Require written answer and Supplementary question cannot be asked. Short Notice Question: Answered orally and asked on short notice of less than 10 days.
UPSC 2017Polity · Parliament
Q829. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: A Private Member bill can be introduced by any member of the Parliament other than a minister. A bill introduced by a Minister in the Parliament is generally called a government bill. A Private member bill generally reflects the stand of the opposition party on public matters. There is less likelihood that the Parliament will adopt it. Its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government or its resignation A 1-month notice is required before introducing the Bill. They are discussed only on Fridays in both Houses of Parliament during Private Members’ Business hours. Constitutional Amendment can be moved by Private member bill.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As of now around 14 private member’s bills have been passed since independence in Indian Parliament. Examples: The Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Bill 1956, The Orphanages & Other Charitable Homes (Supervision & Control) Bill 1960. Marine Insurance Bill 1959 etc. None have been passed in both Houses since 1970.
Exam tip:
For S1, trap lies in the phrase "not elected but only nominated", which tries to narrow the definition of "private member" to nominated MPs only. For S2, "For the first time in its history" Extreme/absolute phrase trap. Parliament has existed for decades since 1950s. Is it logical that not even one private member’s bill was ever passed before?
UPSC 2017Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q830. Consider the following statements: 1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country. 2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an umbrella organization established by the Reserve Bank of In-dia (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, to create a robust payment and settlement infrastructure in India.
Statement 1 is correct: National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting financial inclusion in the country by providing affordable and accessible digital payment solutions to all sections of society including rural and under-served areas. It supports initiatives like the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AEPS) and RuPay which enable seamless and low-cost digital transactions.
Statement 2 is correct: NPCI launched RuPay as India’s first domestic card payment network to reduce dependency on international card networks like Visa and Mastercard. RuPay is widely used in debit cards, credit cards and prepaid cards issued by Indian banks and it supports financial inclusion by offering low-cost payment solutions. The alliances with international network partners (Discover Financial Services, Japan Credit Bureau and China Union Pay) provide valuable access to a global acceptance footprint and offer world-class payment solutions to RuPay cardholders.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
821
2017
(b) 2 only
822
2017
(b) 3 only
823
2017
(b) 2 only
824
2017
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
825
2017
(a) 1 only
826
2017
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
827
2017
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
828
2017
(d) 1, 2 and 3
829
2017
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
830
2017
(c) Both 1 and 2
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.