3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2020Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q551. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells? 1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not. 2. Plant cells do not have plasma membranes unlike animal cells which do. 3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst an animal cell has many small vacuoles. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Both plants and animals contain eukaryotic cells, their cell structures are quite similar. The plasma membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and mitochondria in general make up each eukaryotic cell. The plant cell differs significantly from other cells in that it has a hard cell wall surrounding it. While the cells of other species are surrounded by a cell wall, cellulose and proteins are present in plant cells.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Both plant and animal cells have a plasma membrane that surrounds the cytoplasm and regulates the movement of substances in and out of the cell. The plasma membrane is essential for maintaining homeostasis and facilitating communication between the cell and its environment in both plant and animal cells.
Statement 3 is correct: A mature plant cell typically contains a single, large central vacuole, which can occupy up to 90% of the cell’s volume. This vacuole stores water, nutrients, and waste products and helps maintain turgor pressure, providing structural support to the plant. Animal cells often have multiple small vacuoles scattered throughout the cytoplasm. These vacuoles perform similar storage and waste-management functions but are smaller and less prominent than those in plant cells. Animal Cell Plant Cell
UPSC 2020Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q552. In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology. "Pronuclear Transfer" is used for
Explanation
Pronuclear transfer is an advanced reproductive technique primarily utilized to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to offspring. Mitochondrial diseases are genetic disorders caused by mutations in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), which is inherited exclusively from the mother. These disorders can lead to severe health issues, affecting organs with high energy demands, such as the brain, heart, and muscles.
UPSC 2020Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q553. With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements: 1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps. 2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Solar power is capable of operating both surface and submersible pumps. Surface Pumps are installed above the water surface and are suitable for applications where water is drawn from shallow sources. They can be effectively powered by solar energy. Submersible pumps are designed to operate underwater. These pumps are ideal for deep wells or boreholes. Solar-powered submersible pumps are widely used for extracting water from significant depths.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Solar power can be utilized to run both centrifugal and piston (positive displacement) pumps. Centrifugal Pumps are commonly used in solar applications for higher flow rates with lower lift. They are efficient when adequate solar power is available. Piston Pumps also known as positive displacement pumps, piston pumps are suitable for applications requiring high lift with lower flow rates. Their ability to maintain efficiency under varying conditions makes them well-suited for solar-powered systems.
Exam tip:
Solar power is just a source of electricity. It can power any device that runs on electricity -- depending on how much power (wattage) you generate. Why would solar care about pump mechanism? It just supplies electricity. The motor and circuit handle the internal mechanics. Hence both statements are restrictive by saying "NOT"and hence likely false.
UPSC 2020Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q554. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements: 1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settings’ are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field. 2. When direct planting of seeds is done, the germination percentage is better with single -budded setts as compared to setts with many buds. 3. If bad weather conditions prevail when seeds are directly planted, single - budded seeds have better survival as compared to large setts. 4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Tissue culture (TC) is the cultivation of plant cells, tissues, or organs on specially formulated nutrient media. Under the right conditions, an entire plant can be regenerated from a single cell. Commercial planting of sugarcane uses setts (cuttings that can form roots) at a rate of 6 to 8 tonnes per hectare, or around 10% of total production.
Statement 1 is correct: Due to its bulky attire and physical restrictions, the tissue culture method is becoming uneconomical. Planting excised axillary canestalk buds, sometimes referred to as budchips, would help reduce the mass and enhance the quality of the seed cane. After four to five weeks, healthy settlings are transplanted on a well-prepared field with a row spacing of 90 cm and a gap of 30 cm between each settling (small setts).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Due to moisture loss from the other cut end, the germination percentage of a single bud sett is extremely low. Numerous studies and trials demonstrate that the germination rate of 3 bud sets is higher than the setts having more or less than three buds. Additionally, even if the entire can stem is planted without being trimmed, only the top end will sprout, resulting in a poor germination percentage.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Under bad weather conditions, larger setts (multi-budded) generally have better survival rates compared to single-budded setts. This is because they store more nutrients and moisture, which helps them withstand adverse conditions better than single-budded setts.
Statement 4 is correct: The most crucial and labour-intensive step in sugarcane agriculture is planting. Supplying disease-free seed cane of current commercial types quickly is an innovative new technique, called tissue culture. It employs meristems to clone the mother plant. Tissue culture plants’ cane and sugar yields are comparable to those of plants grown using traditional methods.
Exam tip:
S2 and S3 seems counterintuitive. A sett with multiple buds has a higher chance that at least one will germi-nate. Single-budded setts are more vulnerable. Hence both are likely false. In bad weather, again, single buds are more fragile. Bigger setts might be physically more resilient and offer redundancy.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q555. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? 1. It is spread over two districts. 2. There is no human habitation inside the Park. 3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Desert National Park is one of the biggest national parks in the country. The environment of the Thar Desert is well-illustrated by the Desert National Park. The main landform is made up of permanent dunes, jagged boulders, and compact salt lake bottoms.
Statement 1 is correct: Desert National Park, one of India’s largest, showcases the Thar Desert’s unique environment, featuring permanent dunes, jagged boulders, and salt lake bottoms. Located in Rajasthan, it spans the districts of Jaisalmer and Barmer.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Human activities are not allowed in National Park yet many villagers live inside Desert National park. There are several villages inside and outside the Desert National Park. The primary occupation of the villagers inside the Desert National Park is animal husbandry like goat, sheep, cattle, camel, donkey and followed by agriculture.
Statement 3 is correct: The Thar desert harbours a wide array of flora and faunal species. Desert National Park is one of the primary habitats of the Great Indian Bustard, a critically endangered bird species. The park is an important conservation area for this bird, which is native to the arid regions of Rajasthan.
Exam tip:
For S2, A park that is spread in two districts but have NO human habitation is highly improbable. Some tribal hab-itations exist mostly in National parks hence S2 is likely false, giving option C as correct.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q556. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under "Critical Tiger Habitat"?
Explanation
Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam is the largest tiger re-serve in India having a Core/ Critical Tiger Habitat of 2595.72 SqKm. The tiger reserve spans states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. The reserve is home to the multifunctional reservoirs Srisailam and Nagarjunasagar. This reserve’s basin is bisected by the Krishna River. In addition to the Bengal Tiger, which serves as the area’s top predator, other species are also present here, including the leopard, rusty-spotted cat, pangolin, mugger crocodiles, Indian rock python, and countless different types of birds. A variety of wood-lands, from southern mixed deciduous tropical forest to southern thorn forest multiple types of hurbs and bamboo thickets also grow in this area.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q557. Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?
Explanation
Kanha National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh’s Mandla and Balaghat districts. It officially introduced a mascot, "Bhoorsingh the Barasingha". Kanha National Park (Mandla and Balaghat districts, Madhya Pradesh) is home to the Hard Ground Barasingha, also known as the Swamp Deer(Rucervus duvaucelii). They are exclusively graminivorous, meaning their diet consists solely of grasses. It is the state animal of Madhya Pradesh and is only found in the Kanha Tiger Reserve. Tiger, Leopard, Dhole, Bear, Gaur, and Indian Python are some of the other species discovered. Evergreen Sal forests are the most famous feature (Shorea Robusta) of Kanha National Park’s flora. The Indian Swamp Deer (Rucervus duvaucelii), also known as Barasingha, is a large herbivorous mammal primarily found in India, with some populations in Nepal and Bangladesh. It is known for its distinctive long, branched antlers and yellowish-brown coat. The species is graminivorous, thriving on grasses in wetlands, marshes, and floodplains. The Hard Ground Barasingha, a subspecies, is notably found in Kanha National Park, where successful conservation efforts have helped prevent its extinction. These deer are mostly solitary but gather during the breeding season, and their diet is primarily grass, which they graze in marshy areas. The species faces threats from habitat loss, hunting, and human encroachment, leading to its vulnerable status.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q558. Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? 1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Gangotri National Park 3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary 4. Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Option 1 is correct: To safeguard the critically endangered Musk Deer and its environment, the Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary was established. The refuge is sometimes referred to as "Green Paradise on Earth." It is situated in Askot, a tiny village in the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand. Snow leopard, Himalayan black bear, Himalayan tahr, blue sheep, musk deer, loong, monal, kalij pheasant, and cheer pheasant are some examples of the local fauna.
Option 2 is correct: Gangotri National Park is located in Uttar-kashi, Uttrakhand, in the Bhagirathi River’s upper watershed. Gangotri Glacier is situated inside the park. The park is completely surrounded by temperate coniferous forests. The typical vegetation includes chirpine, deodar, fir, spruce, oak, and rhododendron. The park is home to a number of rare and endangered animals, including the snow leopard, musk deer, Himalayan monal, Himalayan snowcock, and blue sheep (also known as bharal). Options 3 and 4 are incorrect: Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary is home to Tigers, Leopards, Pythons, Barking Deer, Ghariyal, Wild Boar and Swamp Deers, not musk deer. It lies along the banks of the Sharada river. Manas National Park in Assam is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, a Project Tiger Reserve, an Elephant Re-serve as well as a Biosphere Reserve. Manas National Park is home to a varied species of Fauna of the likes of the Indian One Horned Rhinoceros, Asiatic Elephants, Indian Tigers, Clouded Leopards, Hoolock Gibbons, Barking Deer, etc.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Species
Q559. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: 1. The leader of an elephant group is a female. 2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months. 3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only. 4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Asian Elephants come in three sub-species i.e. Indian, Sumatran, and Sri Lankan. The majority of the continent’s remaining elephants belong to the Indian subspecies, which has the largest range.
Statement 1 is correct: The leader of a group is the oldest female. She guides the herd in their search for food and water sources. These matriarchal units can occasionally divide into smaller, temporary groups.
Statement 2 is correct: The gestation period lasts for 22 months, yielding a single baby.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Although sexually mature in their early teens, elephants generally only start to mate at about 20 years and stop bearing calves at about 50.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Recent census showed Kerala as having 5,706 elephants, while Karnataka has 6049 elephants.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Species
Q560. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are
Explanation
The Ceylon frogmouth (Batrachostomus monilig-er), Coppersmith barbet (Megalaima haemacephala), Gray-chinned minivet (Pericrocotus solaris), and White-throated redstart (Myioborus albogularis) are all species of birds found in India. These birds are known for their unique characteristics and are an important part of India’s rich avifauna. The Ceylon frogmouth is a nocturnal bird, while the Coppersmith barbet is known for its distinctive call that sounds like a coppersmith at work.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
551
2020
(c) 1 and 3 only
552
2020
(d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring
553
2020
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
554
2020
(c) 1 and 4 only
555
2020
(c) 1 and 3 only
556
2020
(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
557
2020
(a) Kanha National Park
558
2020
(a) 1 and 2 only
559
2020
(a) 1 and 2 only
560
2020
(a) Birds
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.