3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2020Indian Economy · Industry
Q521. With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. 2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. 3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
TRIMs (Trade-Related Investment Measures) are WTO rules governing investment measures that impact trade in goods. They aim to eliminate trade distortions by prohibiting practices like local content requirements, trade balancing, and quantitative restrictions. TRIMs promote free and non-discriminatory trade, ensuring compliance with GATT principles. Its focus on trade-related regulations rather than directly regulating foreign investments, fostering a fair and open international trading environment.
Statement 1 is correct: The Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) Agreement of the World Trade Organization (WTO) explicitly prohibits measures that require foreign investors to meet certain performance requirements, such as quantitative restrictions on imports. These restrictions are considered trade-distorting and are not allowed under the TRIMS Agreement.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The TRIMS Agreement only applies to investment measures related to trade in goods, not services. It focuses on ensuring that investment measures do not distort or restrict trade in goods. Trade in services is covered under the General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS), which is separate from TRIMS.
Statement 3 is correct: The TRIMS Agreement is not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment itself. It focuses on ensuring that investment measures do not create trade distortions or restrictions. It does not regulate how countries manage foreign investment in terms of entry, ownership, or operational conditions.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q522. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? 1. Cassava 2. Damaged wheat grains 3. Groundnut seeds 4. Horse gram 5. Rotten potatoes 6. Sugar beet Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
National Policy on Biofuels 2018 categorizes biofuels as "Basic Biofuels" viz. First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and "Advanced Biofuels" - Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable the extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category. First-Generation Biofuels (also referred to as Basic biofuels) i.e. bioethanol and biodiesel, are produced from types of bio-mass that are often used for food, such as corn, soy, and sugarcane. These biofuels are made through fermentation or chemical processes that convert the oils, sugars, and starches in the bio-mass into liquid fuels. Second-Generation Biofuels (also referred to as Advanced bio-fuels) i.e, ethanol, municipal solid waste to drop-in fuels, are produced from non-food biomass, such as perennial grass and fast-growing trees. The processes to make them often involve converting fibrous non-edible material called "cellulose" into fuel. Third-generation biofuels are derived from algae and bacteria, which can produce large quantities of lipid oils or other biofuels like biomethanol or biohydrogen. Algae, in particular, grows quickly and has the potential to generate more biomass per unit of land compared to conventional crops.
Option (a) is correct: The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing the use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, Broken rice, Rotten Potatoes.
UPSC 2020Geography · Oceanography
Q523. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1.OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 metres in the south-western Indian Ocean during January-March. 2.OMT collected during January-March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean. Select the correct using the code given below:
Explanation
Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) represents the thermal energy in the upper layer of the ocean. It is measured up to the 26°C isotherm, which represents the depth where water temperature is consistently 26°C. OMT is a more reliable indicator than Sea Surface Temperature (SST) for predicting the Indian monsoon rainfall, as it reflects the ocean’s thermal energy more comprehensively.
Statement 1 is incorrect: OMT is measured up to the 26°C isotherm. In the southwestern Indian Ocean during January-March, the depth of the 26°C isotherm is approximately 59 meters, not 129 meters.
Statement 2 is correct: OMT, especially during the January-March period (pre-monsoon season) has been found to be a useful indicator for forecasting the Indian Summer Monsoon rainfall. Warmer OMT in this period can suggest a stronger monsoon and potentially higher rainfall, while cooler OMT may indicate a weaker monsoon. This is because the ocean’s temperature influences the amount of moisture available for the monsoon winds. Studies by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) and other scientific bodies have shown a strong correlation between OMT and monsoon performance.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q524. Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the:
Explanation
Social Cost of Carbon is best described as the measure of monetary value of long-term damage done by a tonne of CO₂ emissions in a given year. The social cost of carbon (SCC) is used to estimate in dollars all economic damage that would result from emitting one ton of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. India’s country-level social cost of carbon emission was estimated to be the highest at $86 per tonne of CO₂. It means the Indian economy will lose $86 by emitting each additional tonne of CO₂. India is followed by the US ($48) and Saudi Arabia ($47).
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q525. Consider the following statements: 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. 2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. 3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Coal ash contains contaminants like mercury, cadmium and arsenic. Without proper management, these contaminants can pollute waterways, groundwater, drinking water, and the air.
Statement 2 is correct: Burning of fossil fuels (which contain sulphur and nitrogenous matter) such as coal and oil in power stations and furnaces or petrol and diesel in motor engines produce sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, which also leads to ‘acid rain’.
Statement 3 is correct: Indian Coal has comparatively higher ash content than imported coal due to the drift theory of the formation of coal deposits in India. Coal seams formed due to drift theory contain higher ash as compared to the in-situ theory of formation.
UPSC 2020Science and Technology · Nanoscience and Nanotechnology
Q526. When reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements: 1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. 2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. 3. They can be used in biochemical sensors. 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Carbon nanotubes are cylindrical structures made of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. They possess exceptional strength, high electrical conductivity, and unique mechanical properties, making them promising materials for applications in electronics, materials science, and nanotechnology.
Statement 1 is correct: Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) have been widely researched for their role in drug delivery systems. Their unique hollow structure allows them to transport therapeutic molecules directly to targeted cells, improving treatment precision and effectiveness. Functionalization of CNTs enhances biocompatibility and minimizes toxicity.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Carbon nanotubes have applications in tissue engineering, including constructing artificial blood vessels. Their mechanical strength and ability to support cell growth make them useful for creating scaffolds that mimic natural capillaries, promoting tissue repair. However, UPSC in its official answer key has not given recognition to this development and marked statement 2 as incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct: Due to their exceptional electrical conductivity, carbon nanotubes are integral to the development of highly sensitive biochemical sensors. These sensors can detect specific biological molecules, contributing to advancements in diagnostics and monitoring technologies.
Statement 4 is correct: Multiple types of microbes, including bacteria and fungi, have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs). Thus carbon nanotubes are very much biodegradable in nature.
Exam tip:
For S2, The phrase can be made into artificial blood capillaries implies real-world medical application, not just lab potential. That’s an extreme generalization of a field still in early-stage trials. This is similar to wireless electricity transfer in Question 68, page 573. Hence more probably false.
UPSC 2020Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q527. The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometers long, with lasers shining between the craft." The experiment in question refers to
Explanation
Evolved LISA (eLISA) is a planned mission by the ESA for gravitational wave detection. It will detect minute distortions in space-time caused by gravitational waves. Lasers will shine between the spacecraft to measure changes in distance. Two "Daughter" spacecraft and a "Mother" spacecraft make up the eLISA mission. These will form a triangle orbit around the Sun. The two Daughter spacecraft will be joined to the Mother satellite, and the three satellites will form a precision interferometer by 1 million km long laser beams. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Voyager-2: A NASA spacecraft that studied Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. It was not intended for gravitational wave detection. New Horizons: The first mission to explore Pluto and the Kuiper Belt, focused on planetary exploration rather than detecting gravitational waves. LISA Pathfinder: It was the precursor mission of eLISA that successfully demonstrated the technology required for a space based gravitational wave observatory.
UPSC 2020Indian Economy · Inflation
Q528. Consider the following statements: 1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI). 2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does. 3. The Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: In India, food items make up a significant portion of the CPI, around 45%, reflecting the price changes consumers experience. In contrast, the WPI, which tracks wholesale prices, assigns a smaller share to food items, approximately 25-30%. The CPI measures the average change in prices paid by consumers for a basket of goods and services. Food is a significant component of household budgets, especially in developing economies, so it has a substantial weight in the CPI. The WPI, on the other hand, tracks the prices of goods at the wholesale level (i.e., prices received by producers or wholesalers).
Statement 2 is correct: The WPI focuses on measuring price changes in goods at the wholesale level and excludes services. While CPI includes both goods and services, such as healthcare, transportation, and education, which is a major difference between the two indices.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The RBI has not adopted the WPI as its key measure of inflation. The RBI uses the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as its primary gauge of inflation for monetary policy decisions. The CPI is considered a better indicator of the price pressures faced by consumers, which is what the RBI is most concerned about when setting interest rates.
UPSC 2020Polity · Systems of Government
Q529. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which:
Explanation
A Parliamentary System of Government is characterized by the executive (Government) being accountable to the legislature (Parliament). Its other key features generally include:
Collective Responsibility: The Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (Lower House in India). Motion of No Confidence: The government can be removed by the Parliament through a vote of no confidence. Executive from the Legislature: The Prime Minister and Ministers are drawn from the legislature and remain in office as long as they have its confidence.
UPSC 2020Polity · Systems of Government
Q530. A constitutional government by definition is a:
Explanation
A constitutional government is a system in which the powers of the government are limited by a constitution. This ensures that government actions are guided by established laws rather than arbitrary decisions. The core idea of a constitutional government is limited government, where authority is regulated, checked, and balanced by a legal framework.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
521
2020
(c) 1 and 3 only
522
2020
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
523
2020
(b) 2 only
524
2020
(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO₂ emissions in a given year.
525
2020
(d) 1, 2 and 3
526
2020
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
527
2020
(d) Evolved LISA
528
2020
(a) 1 and 2 only
529
2020
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
530
2020
(d) limited government
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This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.