3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2021Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q471. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Retail investors through Demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in the primary market. 2. The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. 3. ‘Central Depository Services Ltd’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Retail investors can participate in government securities (G-Secs) like Treasury Bills (T-Bills) and Government of India Bonds through schemes such as Retail Direct Scheme facilitated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). This allows them to invest directly in the primary market using Demat accounts.
Statement 2 is correct: The NDS-OM platform, is an electronic trading platform, operated by the RBI, is an anonymous order-matching system for secondary market trading in government securities (G-Secs)
Statement 3 is incorrect: CDSL is promoted by the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) but not by the Reserve Bank of India. It is promoted by BSE Ltd. jointly with leading banks such as State Bank of India, Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, HDFC Bank, Standard Chartered Bank and Union Bank of India.
UPSC 2021Indian Economy · Human Development and Sustainable Development
Q472. With reference to ‘Water Credit’, consider the following statements: 1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. 2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank. 3. It aims to enable poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: WaterCredit is a powerful solution and puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. It helps bring small loans to those who need access to affordable financing and expert resources to make household water and toilet solutions a reality.
Statement 2 is incorrect: WaterCredit is not launched by the WHO or the World Bank. It is an initiative of Water.org, a non-profit organization co-founded by Gary White and Matt Da-mon. While it may collaborate with various global partners, it is not directly under the aegis of these organizations.
Exam tip:
S2 aligns with Function-person/organisation/ministry match trap as it’s easy to manipulate to make it false. What possible role does WHO and World bank can play in "Water credits’’. Isn’t it a misfit? Highly plausible hence likely false.
UPSC 2021Polity · Miscellaneous
Q473. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/ her right. 2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Parole is not a right but a privilege granted by prison authorities. Parole is a discretionary relief granted to prisoners under specific conditions. The decision to grant parole lies with the prison authorities or state authorities, and they may deny parole even if a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, depending on factors such as security risks or the nature of the crime committed.
Statement 2 is correct: Each state has its own parole rules, governed by respective State Prison Manuals and the Prisons Act, 1894. These rules outline eligibility criteria, conditions, and the authority responsible for granting parole.
Exam tip:
For S1, Trap phrase: "cannot be denied" an absolute phrase implying parole becomes a right. But in India:
Parole is not a Fundamental Right, nor is it automatically granted. Even if a "sufficient case" is made, granting parole is at the discretion of the competent authority. Hence likely false.
UPSC 2021Polity · Miscellaneous
Q474. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. 2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Judicial custody does not mean detention in a police station. Instead, the accused is sent to jail under the magistrate’s orders. Police custody, on the other hand, involves detention at a police station for investigation. Judicial custody ensures that the accused is under judicial supervision and not directly handled by the police.
Statement 2 is correct: During judicial custody, the police cannot interrogate the accused without prior approval from the court. This provision protects the accused from undue pressure or custodial violence while ensuring due process.
Additional insight:
Judicial custody refers to a situation where an accused person is under the custody of the court and housed in a jail, whereas police custody means the accused is detained at a police station for investigation. These are governed by provisions under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973.
Aspect
Judicial custody
Police custody
Authority
Under the jurisdiction of the court.
Under the jurisdiction of the police for investigation.
Detention location
The accused is sent to jail (prison or judicial lock-up).
The accused is kept in a police station lock-up.
Purpose
Ensures the accused does not tamper with evidence or influence witnesses while awaiting trial.
Allows police to interrogate the accused, gather evidence and proceed with the investigation.
Duration
Can extend up to 90 days for serious offences and 60 days for others.
Maximum 15 days, after which the accused must be presented before a magistrate.
Interrogation rights
Police need court permission to interrogate the accused in jail.
Police can directly question the accused without seeking court permission.
UPSC 2021Polity · Miscellaneous
Q475. With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements: 1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage. 2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment. 3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account. Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: EPF coverage is not universal for all casual workers. It applies to workers in establishments with 20 or more employees and only if they meet the eligibility criteria under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952. Many temporary, seasonal, or casual workers may not qualify.
Statement 2 is correct: Casual workers are entitled to regular working hours and overtime payment as per the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, and the Factories Act, 1948. These laws ensure that all workers, including casual labourers, have regulated working hours and are paid overtime wages at stipulated rates if they work beyond the prescribed hours.
Statement 3 is correct: The government can mandate wage payments through banking channels under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, which was amended by the Payment of Wages (Amendment) Act, 2017. This amendment allows the government to require industries and establishments to pay wages electronically or through bank transfers to enhance transparency and prevent exploitation.
UPSC 2020Medieval History · Early Medieval Period
Q476. Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period?
Explanation
Hundis are used as a form of remittance instrument to transfer money from place to place. It was used as a form of credit instrument or IOU to borrow money and as a bill of exchange in trade transactions. The Hundis was a letter of credit payable after a period of time. The word "hundi" is often linked to the Sanskrit root "hundika," meaning a type of bill or note. The Lekhapaddhati (12th century, in post-Harsha period) refer to the use of hundika by kings and nobles to make payments but it may have been used by merchants as well. Hundis were widely used during the post-Harsha period (7th century onwards) and played a significant role in the growth of trade and urbanization in India.
UPSC 2020Polity · Basic Concepts
Q477. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
Explanation
The common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is the final goal of stateless and classless society, whereas means to achieve these final goals differ. A stateless society does refer to a society without a centralized government or formal state institutions, it typically implies a system where people govern themselves through communal, decentralized methods without the need for a coercive state apparatus. According to Karl Marx, the State is an instrument of oppression and an organ of the bourgeoisie that only works for maintaining class dominance. Therefore, he strives for class struggle and revolution which will ultimately result in a stateless society. Mahatma Gandhi gave the concept of Ramarajya, an ideal society characterised by self-governing individuals living in harmony without centralised political authority. He believed in achieving this stateless society through non-violent means, emphasizing moral and ethical self-discipline. Gandhi’s vision aligns with the idea of enlightened anarchy.
UPSC 2020Polity · Basic Concepts
Q478. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
Explanation
Bureaucracy is the executive branch of government, responsible for implementing decisions made by the elected officials. Bureaucrats are selected through a merit-based process to manage state affairs. In India, the primary role of the bureaucracy is to ensure the execution of government policies. While political leadership may change with elections, the bureaucracy remains constant, providing stability and continuity in governance. This ensures that policies are carried out consistently, regardless of changes in the political leadership.
UPSC 2020Indian Economy · Planning in India and Economic Reforms
Q479. With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalisation, consider the following statements: 1. Worker productivity (rupees per worker at 2004-05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas. 2. The percentage age share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased. 3. In rural areas, the growth in the non-farm economy increased. 4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
In a report "Changing Structure of Rural Economy of India: Implications for Employment and Growth 2017," published by NITI Aayog, following observations were made:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Both rural and urban regions have seen an improvement in worker productivity as well as the absolute level of income per worker. For rural areas, it was Rs. 37273 in 2004 -05 and Rs. 101755 in 2011 -12, while for urban areas it was Rs. 120419 in 2004 -05 and Rs. 282515 in 2011 -12.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the 2011 Census, 68.8% of India’s population and 72.4% of the workforce resided in rural areas. However, the steady transition to urbanisation over the years has led to a decline in the rural share of the workforce, from 77.8% in 1993 -94 to 70.9% in 2011 -12.
Statement 3 is correct: About two-thirds of rural income is now generated in non -agricultural activities. Non-farm economy has increased in rural areas. The share of agriculture in the rural economy has decreased from 57% in 1993 -94 to 39% in 2011 -12.
Statement 4 is correct: After 2004 -05, the rural areas have witnessed negative growth in employment in spite of high growth in output. The growth rate of rural employment was 1.45% during
1994 -2005, which fell to -0.28% between 2005 -12.
Exam tip:
For S2, Trap word: "steadily" = absolute = RED FLAG, hence likely false. Eliminate options A and D. See, in comparison S4 just mention decreased with no superlative adjective, hence S4 is not an extreme one as S2.
UPSC 2020Polity · Salient Features of the Constitution
Q480. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘Judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Basic Structure encompasses basic and core values like federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy which forms bedrock of the Indian Constitution. It cannot be amended by parliament under Art 368. Basic Structure Doctrine is a Judicially innovative doctrine and it was neither defined under Constitution nor it was defined by the Supreme Court or any other court.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 13(2) of the Constitution prohibits the Union or States from enacting laws that violate fundamental rights. Any such law, to the extent of its violation, is deemed void. This provision ensures judicial review to protect citizens’ rights and liberties.
Exam tip:
For S1, The word "defines" is a strong and rigid claim. Think practically: The Constitution is not a dictionary. It doesn’t explicitly list out or define "Basic Structure". Hence likely false. Eliminates option A and C.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
471
2021
(b) 1 and 2
472
2021
(c) 1 and 3 only
473
2021
(b) 2 only
474
2021
(b) 2 only
475
2021
(b) 2 and 3 only
476
2020
(c) A bill of exchange
477
2020
(a) the final goal of a stateless society
478
2020
(d) An Agency for the implementation of public policy
479
2020
(b) 3 and 4 only
480
2020
(b) 2 only
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This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.