3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 291–300 of 3238 questions
Browse by subjectBrowse by year
UPSC 2022Medieval History · Early Medieval Period
Q291. Consider the following pairs:
King
Dynasty
1. Nannuka
Chandela
2. Jayashakti
Paramara
3. Nagabhata II
Gurjara-Pratihara
4. Bhoja
Rashtrakuta
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation
Between the 8th and 12th centuries AD, medieval India saw the rise of regional dynasties like the Chandelas, Paramaras, Gurjara-Pratiharas, and Rashtrakutas, which shaped the political, cultural, and architectural landscape after the decline of centralized powers like the Guptas and Harsha’s empire.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Chandela dynasty was founded around the 9th century, and Nannuka is traditionally regarded as the founder. Chandela dominion extended from the Yamuna (Jumna) River in the north to the region of Saguar (now Sagar) and from the Dhasan River in the west to the Vindhya Hills. It was during Chandela rule that Khajuraho turned into a cultural and architectural hub. The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple stands as the pinnacle of Chandela architectural achievement. The Chandela dynasty is famous for constructing the Khajuraho temples, a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Nannuka established the dynasty in the early 9th century CE.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Vakpati’s sons Jayashakti (Jeja) and Vijayashakti (Vija) consolidated the Chandella power. Vakapati succeeded his father Nannuka of the Chandela dynasty and he was succeeded by Vijayshakti and Jayshakti. The Paramara dynasty was a prominent Rajput dynasty that ruled Malwa, with kings like Bhoja and Munja being its most famous rulers.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Vatsaraja was a Pratihara ruler who came to the throne in about 778 AD controlled eastern Rajasthan and Malava. Nagabhata II (reigned c. 793-833) was his successor. He was defeated by the Rashtrakuta king Govinda III (reigned 793-814). He ruled in the early 9th century CE and is known for his military campaigns against the Palas and Rashtrakutas.
Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Bhoja I / Mihir Bhoja (c.836-885 AD) was the successor of Nagabhatta II, who had a long reign of over 44-46 years and proved to be the most successful and popular ruler of Pratiharas. An Arab visitor to western India, the merchant Sulaymn, referred to the kingdom of Juzr (which is generally identified as Gurjara) and its strong and able ruler, who may have been Bhoja. The Rashtrakuta dynasty was a prominent power in the Deccan, with kings like Amoghavarsha and Krishna I.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Ecology, Ecosystem and Functions of Ecosystem
Q292. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Alfalfa, chickpea, and clover are nitrogen-fixing plants. They belong to the leguminous family and form symbiotic associations with Rhizobium bacteria in their root nodules, aiding in nitrogen fixation and enriching soil fertility. Amaranth, purslane (Kulfa), and spinach, are non-legumi-nous plants and lack the ability to fix nitrogen as they do not form symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria or develop root nodules. This natural ability of legumes like alfalfa, chickpea, and clover to fix nitrogen is extensively utilized in crop rotation practices to replenish soil nutrients and enhance agricultural productivity.
UPSC 2022Art and Culture · Indian Architecture
Q293. Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts Location in the State of A. Dhauli Odisha B. Erragudi Andhra Pradesh C. Jaugada Madhya Pradesh D. Kalsi Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation
Ashoka’s Rock Edicts are distributed across South Asia and are categorized as Major and Minor Rock Edicts. These inscriptions highlight Emperor Ashoka’s principles of governance and his promotion of Dhamma, or ethical conduct. Major Rock Edict Sites: Dhauli (Odisha), Girnar (Gujarat), Mansehra and Shahbazgarhi (Pakistan), Jaugada (Odisha), Erragudi (Andhra Pradesh) Kalsi (Uttarakhand), Sopara (Maharashtra) etc. Minor Rock Edict Sites: Sopara (Maharashtra), Maski, Brahmagiri and Gavimath (Karnataka), Bairat (Rajasthan) etc.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Dhauli is an important site of Ashoka’s Major Rock Edicts in Odisha, located near Bhubaneswar. The inscriptions mention Ashoka’s policy of Dhamma and his remorse after the Kalinga War (261 BCE). The site also features the famous Elephant Carving which symbolizes the emergence of Buddhism.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Erragudi or Yerragudi rock edict is located in Kurnool district in Andhra Pradesh. It mentions Ashoka’s efforts to spread Dhamma (morality and non-violence). The edicts here are inscribed on a granite rock and are written in Brahmi script and Prakrit language.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Jaugada is not located in Madhya Pradesh. It is actually located in the Ganjam district of Odisha. It is another significant site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts. The edicts here are written in Brahmi script.
Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Kalsi is actually in Uttarakhand, not Karnataka. It is the only Ashokan Major Rock Edict site in North India. It highlights Ashoka’s message of non-violence, moral conduct, and religious tolerance. The edicts here are inscribed in the Brahmi script and are significant because they mark the northernmost extent of Ashoka’s empire. 4 Art and Culture
UPSC 2022Polity · Historical Background
Q294. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects? 1. Administration of Justice 2. Local self-Government 3. Land Revenue 4. Police Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
The Government of India Act 1919 introduced the system of ‘dyarchy’ in provincial governance. It divided subjects into two categories: reserved and transferred. Reserved subjects like law and order, land revenue, administration of justice, finance, and police were controlled by the governor and his executive council of bureaucrats. Transferred subjects like education, health, and local self-government were managed by ministers elected from the legislative council. This was aimed at increasing Indian representation in the government, though real power remained with the British. The Act came into effect in 1921.
Additional insight:
Key Features of the Government of India Act 1919 Act Bicameral Legislature: The Indian legislature was now composed of:
Council of State (Upper House): Partially elected.
Legislative Assembly (Lower House): Majority elected, but with limited powers. Increased Participation of Indians: The number of Indians in government increased, but British officials retained veto power. Separate Electorates Extended: More communities (such as Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans) were given separate electorates, deepening communal divisions. Limited Franchise: Only a small section of Indians (wealthy, property-owning men) were allowed to vote.
Exam tip:
Reserved = retained by British officials, Transferred = handed over to Indian ministers. If we find: Which subjects would the British be most willing to give to Indians among given subjects? Then removing that will directly give us correct option. Local Self-Government S2, These are small-scale, non-threatening, ODD ONE OUT -- it’s least likely to be "Reserved". Hence eliminate that to reach option C.
UPSC 2022Art and Culture · Indian Architecture
Q295. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? 1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. 2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. 3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
The Prime Minister inaugurated and laid the foundation stone of multiple projects in Somnath Temple complex in August 2021. The Somnath temple, also called Deo Patan, is located in Prabhas Patan, Veraval in Gujarat, India.
Statement 1 is correct: Somnath Temple, is believed to be the first among the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva. Apart from Somnath, other famous jyotirlingas are Mallikarjuna (Andhra Pradesh), Mahakaleshwar, Omkareshwar (Madhya Pradesh), Bhimashankar (Maharashtra), Baidyanath (Jharkhand), Kashi Vishwanath (Uttar Pradesh) etc.
Statement 2 is correct: Al-Biruni, an Arab traveler, gave a highly favorable description of Somanth temple in Kitab Al-Hind (Book of India). It is believed to have inspired Mahmud of Ghazni’s expedition in 1024 AD.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The contemporary Somnath temple’s reconstruction was started under the orders of the first Home Minister of India, Vallabhbhai Patel. The then President of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, did the Pran-Pratistha at the existing temple in 1951.
UPSC 2022Medieval History · The Delhi Sultanate
Q296. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: 1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalalud- din Khalji. 2. During the reign of Alauddin Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city. 3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of the north-west of his kingdom to Mongols. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
The Mongol invasions of India, particularly during the Delhi Sultanate, began in the early 13th century under Genghis Khan and continued through the 14th century. The invasions targeted northern India, with significant assaults during the reigns of Iltutmish, Alauddin Khalji, and Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq. Despite several incursions, the Mongols did not establish permanent control over Indian territories.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The first Mongol invasion of Indiatook place in the reign of Sultan Shamsuddin Iltutmish. Who was a ruler of Slave dynasty and was also able to preserve his kingdom.
Statement 2 is correct: During the reign of Alauddin Khalji, Mongols attacked and pillaged not only the surrounding areas, but Delhi itself. Alauddin formed a large standing army for conquest and defense, but the Mongols attacked during his Chittor siege.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq faced several Mongol invasions during his reign but he successfully defended his kingdom against them and did not lose any territory to the Mongols. In some cases, he even launched counterattacks and drove the Mongols out of the region.
Exam tip:
For S1, "First invasion under Jalaluddin" assumes nothing came before -- red flag, high probability of being false. Jalaluddin Khalji was the founder of the Khalji dynasty -- so likely early 1290s. But Mongol Empire peaked earlier, under Genghis Khan in early 1200s. That’s a timeline mismatch. Wouldn’t earlier Delhi Sultans like the Slave dynasty (Iltutmish, Balban) have faced Mongol pressure first? Eliminating options A and C.
UPSC 2022Medieval History · The Delhi Sultanate
Q297. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as "Kulah-Daran"?
Explanation
The ’Kulah-Daran’ are a group of Persian immigrants who lived in India in the eleventh century. "Kulah-Daran" literally translates to "hat-wearers" and was used to describe people who wore a specific kind of Persian cap called a "kulah." The Sayyids (1414 to 1451 AD) were known as ‘Kulah Daran’ during the Delhi sultanate. They were the fourth ruling family of the Delhi Sultanate established by Khizr khan. Other dynasties of the Dehi Sultanate are:
Mamluks (AD 1206-AD 1290) The Khaljis (AD 1290-AD 1320) The Tughlaqs (AD 1320-AD 1412) The Lodis (AD 1451-AD 1526).
UPSC 2022Polity · Salient Features of the Constitution
Q298. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
Explanation
Option (a) is correct: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for the administration and control of scheduled areas and tribes in India. It aims to protect the interests of tribal communities and prevent the exploitation of tribal lands and resources. One of the key provisions under the Fifth Schedule is that it restricts the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people in tribal areas, thus safeguarding their land rights and ensuring their protection against land alienation.
Option (b) is incorrect: This would create a local self-governing body in that area that is not specifically tied to the Fifth Schedule, as local self-governance is addressed in other parts of the Constitution, like the Panchayati Raj system.
Option (c) is incorrect: This would convert that area into the Union Territory is incorrect. The Fifth Schedule does not convert any area into a Union Territory; it applies to scheduled areas within existing states.
Option (d) is incorrect: The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State is incorrect. The Fifth Schedule does not declare a state as a special category state. According to Article 244(1), the President defines Scheduled Areas, and the Governor, after consulting the Tribal Advisory Council (TAC), can make regulations for their governance. These regulations may include restrictions on land transfers to non-tribals, the allocation of land to Scheduled Tribes, and the regulation of money-lending activities involving tribal communities.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q299. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: 1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention. 2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or landlocked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. 3. nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), 1982, defines maritime zones and rights of coastal and landlocked states.
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 3 of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), every coastal state has the right to establish its territorial sea up to a maximum breadth of 12 nautical miles from baselines determined under the convention. The state exercises full sovereignty over this zone, including its airspace and seabed.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 17 of UNCLOS provides that all states, including landlocked ones, have the right of "innocent passage" through the territorial sea of a coastal state. Innocent passage means passing through the sea without harming the security, peace, or environment of the coastal state.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 57 of UNCLOS specifies that an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline used to measure the territorial sea. In this zone, the coastal state has special rights over marine re-sources (fishing, oil exploration, etc.) but it cannot prohibit navigation or overflight by foreign states.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q300. Consider the following countries: 1. Armenia 2. Azerbaijan 3. Croatia 4. Romania 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?
Explanation
Organization of Turkic States (OTS) formerly known as the Turkic Council was established in 2009 under the Nakh-chivan Agreement. Its primary objective is to promote comprehensive cooperation among Turkic-speaking countries, fostering collaboration based on shared history, culture, and language. Full Members include Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Türkiye and Uzbekistan and Observer States are Hungary, Turkmenistan, and the Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus (TRNC). The OTS Secretariat is headquartered in Istanbul, Türkiye. Options (c) is correct:
Azerbaijan is a full member of OTS. It has strong ethnic, linguistic, and cultural ties with Turkey and other Turkic nations. Uzbekistan is a full member of OTS, joining officially in 2019. It is a Turkic-speaking Central Asian country with historical connections to the Turkic world. Armenia is not a Turkic country and is not a member of OTS. It has historical conflicts with Azerbaijan, especially over Nagorno-Karabakh. Croatia is not a Turkic-speaking country and not a member of OTS. It is part of the European Union (EU) and NATO. Romania is not a Turkic-speaking country and not a member of OTS. It has cultural ties with Hungary and the Balkans but not with the Turkic world.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
291
2022
(b) Only two pairs
292
2022
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
293
2022
(b) Only two pairs
294
2022
(c) 1, 3 and 4
295
2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
296
2022
(b) 2 only
297
2022
(d) Sayyids
298
2022
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
299
2022
(d) 1, 2 and 3
300
2022
(c) 2 and 5
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.