3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q241. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Switzerland consistently ranks as the world’s leading gold exporter by value. In 2023, the country exported gold worth over $107 billion which makes it the top exporter globally. The country is home to some of the world’s largest and most advanced gold refineries, processing a significant portion of the global gold supply. This infrastructure enables Switzerland to import large quantities of raw gold, refine it, and then export high-quality gold products worldwide.
Statement II is incorrect: Switzerland does not hold the second-largest gold reserves globally. As of the latest data, the top countries by gold reserves are: United States>Germany>Italy>France>Russia>China> Switzerland.
UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q242. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 2.The Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The East-West Corridor is a part of India’s National Highways Development Project (NHDP) which is designed to improve connectivity between the eastern and western regions of the country. It connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat, passing through states like West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan. The Golden Quadrilateral forms a quadrilateral connecting Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. The East-West Corridor is not under the Golden Quadrilateral Project.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway is an initiative to enhance connectivity between the three countries. The highway connects Moreh in Manipur, India, to Mae Sot in Thailand, passing through Myanmar. The route includes key locations such as Tamu and Mandalay in Myanmar. Chiang Mai located further north in Thailand is not on this route.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar (BCIM) Economic Corridor is a proposed initiative aimed at enhancing economic integration and connectivity among the four countries. The corridor is intended to link Kolkata in West Bengal, India, to Kunming in Yunnan Province, China, traversing through Bangladesh and Myanmar. Varanasi is not part of this proposed route.
UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q243. About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by:
Explanation
Option (c) is correct: The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is the world’s largest producer of cobalt, accounting for approximately 70-75% of global production. Cobalt is a critical metal used in lithium-ion batteries for electric vehicles (EVs) and electronic devices. The DRC’s vast mineral-rich deposits in the Katanga region which makes it the dominant player in the global cobalt supply chain
Additional insight:
Argentina is known for its vast mineral resources like lithium, silver, copper, and gold. It is part of the "Lithium Triangle" (along with Chile and Bolivia) which makes it one of the world’s largest producers of lithium. It is a significant producer of silver, particularly from the Patagonia region. It has significant copper and gold mining operations in regions like San Juan and Mendoza. Botswana is globally known for its diamonds, copper, nickel, and coal. It is one of the world’s top diamond producers, with mines in Jwaneng and Orapa mines. It has significant copper and nickel reserves in the Selebi-Phikwe region. Kazakhstan is rich in uranium, coal, chromium, and zinc. It is the world’s largest producer of uranium, used primarily for nuclear power generation. It also holds a significant share of the world’s chromium production, essential for producing stainless steel.
UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q244. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
Explanation
Ilmenite(FeTiO) and rutile(TiO₂) are heavy minerals found abundantly in coastal sands, particularly in India’s Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala coasts. These minerals are the primary sources of titanium which are a valuable metal used in aerospace, defense, and industrial applications. They contain titanium dioxide, which is extracted and processed to produce titanium metal and its alloys.
Option (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Aluminium is extracted from bauxite and not ilmenite or rutile. Copper is obtained from ores like chalcopyrite and not from coastal sands. Iron is found in hematite and magnetite ores
Exam tip:
Odd one out among these is Titanium. All other three are well known, widely used metals with famous mining sites. Had these three been found in coastal tracts it would have been well known, have you ever heard a iron ore or aluminium ore site near coast. No!
UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q245. Consider the following pairs:
Port
Well known as
1. Kamarajar Port
First major port in India registered as a company
2. Mundra Port
Largest privately owned port in India
3. Visakhapatnam
Largest container port in India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Kamarajar Port is the 12th major port of India and the first in the country to operate as a public company. In 1999 it was declared a major port under the Indian Ports Act,1908. It was incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the Companies Act, 1956 in October 1999. Kamarajar Port is the only corporatized major port in India, operating as a company. Today, the landlord port model, where the port authority leases the facilities to private operators, is the dominant approach in larger and medium-sized ports.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Mundra Port is situated along the northern coast of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra in Gujarat. It is the largest privately owned port of India. It is owned and operated by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ) and handles a significant portion of India’s cargo.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva) is the largest container port in India. Visakhapatnam Port ranks as India’s third largest state-owned port in terms of cargo volume handled and holds the distinction of being the largest port on the Eastern Coast.
UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q246. Consider the following statements: 1. India has more arable area than China. 2.The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India has more arable area than China. According to the World Bank India has approximately 156 million hectares of arable land, while China has about 119 million hectares.
Statement 2 is incorrect: China has a higher proportion of its arable land under irrigation than India. As per reports from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) about 50% of China’s arable land is irrigated while India has approximately 35% of its arable land under irrigation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: According to FAO (2021) China’s ce-real yield is about 6,300 kg/ha while India’s is around 3,200 kg/ha. This shows that China’s agricultural productivity is significantly higher than India’s.
UPSC 2023Polity · President
Q247. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of:
The elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States [including the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry]. The Members nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States, including NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry, are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher the value of the vote of each MLA of that State is not always true as it depends on the ratio of the total population to the total number of elective seats.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is less than that of Kerala, as it depends on the ratio of the total population to the total number of elective seats.
Statement 4 is correct: Based on the ratio of the total population to the total number of elective seats in the State value of the vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh.
UPSC 2023Polity · President
Q248. Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/ her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/ she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in Presidential elections, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the Presidential elections.
Statement 3 is incorrect: When a bill is sent to the President after it has been passed by the Parliament, he can give his assent to the bill, withhold his assent to the bill or return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the Parliament. No time limit has been fixed by the Constitution within which the President has to give his/her assent to the bill.
Exam tip:
S1 is an extreme statement and violates common sense. The President performs major constitutional functions -- signing laws, appointments, pardons, etc. If those be-come invalid, it would create a constitutional crisis. So logically, such actions must be protected retroactively. For S2, Use this guiding test: "Does this condition make the whole system hostage to one state’s situation?" If yes That’s logically faulty for a pan-India constitutional post like the President. For S3, If the Constitution had set time limits, there’d be no controversy over "pocket veto" (where President takes no action). The fact that such debates happen = Time limits don’t exist. Hence all three are likely false.
UPSC 2023Science and Technology · Defence Technology
Q249. Consider the following statements: 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid - fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: Ballistic missiles are rocket-powered only during the initial (boost) phase of flight, following an arcing trajectory to the target after that. Ballistic missiles travel well outside earth’s atmosphere. In contrast, cruise missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their journeys. Cruise missile flies within the earth’s atmosphere and uses jet engine technology.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India developed the land-based intercontinental ballistic missile known as Agni-V. The BrahMos is a medium-range Ramjet Supersonic Cruise Missile that may be fired from a submarine, ship, aircraft, or land. The BrahMos is undoubtedly the world’s fastest supersonic cruise missile.
Exam tip:
Content in both statements are interchanged. The term ballistic itself implies launch-arc-fall motion like a can-non shell -- this requires rocket power at least initially, not a jet engine. While, Cruise = implies long "drive-like" flight. Cruise ships, cruise control -- all constant-speed movement. Similarly in S2 too, hence both are likely false.
UPSC 2023International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q250. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. 2. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’. 3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. 4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The 44th Chess Olympiad is being held in Chennai from July 28 to August 9, 2022. The prestigious competition, organised since 1927, is being hosted in India for the first time and in Asia after 30 years.
Statement 2 is correct: The 44th Chess Olympiad has unveiled the official logo and mascot for the event. The Mascot is a chess knight called Thambi.
Statement 3 is incorrect:: Vera Menchik Cup is for 1st place in the Women’s section.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Hamilton-Russell Cup is given to the winning team in the open section.
Additional insight:
The 45th edition of the Chess Olympiad will take place in Hungary from September 10 to 23. This will be the first time since 1926 that the world’s biggest multi-national chess tournament returns to Budapest. In the 45th edition, this was the first Chess Olympiad in which teams of refugees participated due to efforts made through FIDE’s initiative for refugees "Chess for Protection". India won Gold Medal in Open category, Women category, Open Individual (Gukesh Dommaraju). Team India also won Gaprindashvili Trophy.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
241
2023
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
242
2023
(d) None
243
2023
(c) The Democratic Republic of the Congo
244
2023
(d) Titanium
245
2023
(b) Only two pairs
246
2023
(a) Only one
247
2023
(a) Only one
248
2023
(d) None
249
2023
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
250
2023
(b) Only two
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.
