3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
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UPSC 2004Geography · Places and Locations: Indian Geography
Q2271. Match List-I (Biosphere Reserve) with List-II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I
List-II
A. Similipal
1. Sikkim
B. Dehong Deband
2. Uttaranchal
C. Nokrek
3. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Kanchenjunga
4. Orissa
5. Meghalaya
Explanation
A is correctly matched with 4: Similipal Biosphere Reserve is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. Similipal Biosphere Reserve is renowned for its diverse ecosystems, encompassing dense forests, grasslands, and wetlands. The reserve is a significant habitat for the Bengal tiger and the Asian elephant. The Similipal biosphere reserve is an important part of the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve which also includes the Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary and Hadgarh Wildlife Sanctuary. B is correctly matched with 3: Dehang-Debang Biosphere Reserve is situated in the eastern Himalayan region of Arunachal Pradesh. The Brahmaputra River, known as the Siang and Dihang in Arunachal Pradesh, flows through the reserve. Dehang-Debang is a crucial habitat for several endangered species such as Mishmi Takin and the Red Panda. C is correctly matched with 5: Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is in the West Garo Hills of Meghalaya. It is home to the rare and endangered species of the Red Panda. The reserve is also famous for being the origin of Meghalaya’s important rivers including the Simsang River. The reserve features tropical and subtropical forests, housing endangered species like the clouded leopard and hoolock gibbon, along with endemic plants such as Nepenthes khasiana (pitcher plant). D is correctly matched with 1: Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is located in Sikkim. Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve encompasses a wide range of altitudinal zones, from subtropical forests to high-altitude alpine meadows and glaciers. Kanchenjunga is a biodiversity hotspot, supporting a diverse array of flora and fauna, including the snow leopard, the red panda, and various species of rhododendrons. The area also has cultural significance to the Bhutia and Lepcha communities.
UPSC 2004Geography · Places and Locations: Indian Geography
Q2272. Consider the following: 1. Mahadeo Hills 2. Sahyadri Parvat 3. Satpura Range What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the south?
Explanation
Mahadev Hills is located in Madhya Pradesh. They are known for their scenic beauty, forested slopes, valleys, and waterfalls. It is composed of sandstone and sedimentary rocks and support diverse flora and fauna. These hills also hold cultural significance as sacred sites integrated into local traditions. Satpura Range lies south of the Mahadeo Hills, spanning Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Chhattisgarh. Named after the Sanskrit word for "seven mountains," it consists of rolling hills, plateaus, and peaks made of metamorphic and sedimentary rocks. It is home to national parks like Kanha and Satpura. Western Ghats (Sahyadri Parvat) runs along India’s western coast through Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. They are composed mainly of basalt rock from ancient volcanic activity. They give rise to rivers like Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri. The Western Ghats regulate monsoon patterns by intercepting Arabian Sea winds and hold cultural value with ancient temples and sacred sites. Thus, the correct sequence from north to south is: Mahadeo Hills -> Satpura Range -> Sahyadri Parvat
UPSC 2004Geography · Places and Locations: Indian Geography
Q2273. Lake Sambhar is nearest to which one of the following cities of Rajasthan?
Explanation
Sambhar Lake is India’s largest inland saltwater lake, located in Rajasthan. It is spread across Jaipur, Nagaur, and Ajmer districts. The lake covers an area of about 230 square kilometers during peak monsoon and is known for its historical and economic significance due to salt production.
Option (b) is correct: Sambhar Lake is located approximately 80 km southwest of Jaipur, making it the nearest major city. Jaipur, the capital of Rajasthan, is well connected to Sambhar Lake via NH 8 and NH 48. The lake is also a popular weekend getaway from Jaipur for bird watchers and photographers. It is home to migratory birds like flamingos, pelicans, and storks.
UPSC 2004Geography · Places and Locations: Indian Geography
Q2274. Match List I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I
List-II
A. Kanger Ghati National
1. Chhattisgarh Park
B. Nagerhole National
2. Haryana Park
C. Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary
3. Himachal Pradesh
D. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary
4. Karnataka
Explanation
A is correctly matched with 1: Kanger Ghati National is located in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh. It is known for its biodiversity and limestone caves, such as the famous Kotumsar Cave. The park is home to species like the Bastar hill myna, tigers, leopards, and various reptiles. It is also known for its scenic beauty and waterfalls, such as the Tirathgarh Falls. B is correctly matched with 4: Nagerhole National Park is located in Kodagu and Mysore districts of Karnataka. It is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and is famous for Bengal Tigers, Indian Elephants, and leopards. C is correctly matched with 3: Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is one of the largest wildlife sanctuaries in the state. It is known for its alpine and sub-alpine vegetation and is home to species like the Himalayan brown bear, musk deer, and snow leopard.The sanctuary is also a popular trekking destination. The sanctuary features alpine meadows, coniferous forests of deodar and fir, and vibrant rhododendron shrubs. D is correctly matched with 2: Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is located in Gurugram, Haryana. The sanctuary attracts numerous species of waterfowl and other birds, making it a crucial stopover on their migratory routes. Sultanpur’s ecosystem comprises various aquatic plants and grasses, providing habitat for a rich variety of resident and migratory birds, including ducks, geese, waders, raptors, and songbirds.
UPSC 2004Geography · Places and Locations: Indian Geography
Q2275. In which one of the following Union Territories, do people of the Onge tribe live?
Explanation
The Onge, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) inhabit Little Andaman Island of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are one of the oldest tribes of India, believed to have migrated from Africa around 60,000 years ago.The Onges are hunter-gatherers and rely on forest produce and fishing for survival. Their population is critically low, with fewer than 150 members as per the latest census.
Option (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
Dadra and Nagar Haveli is home to tribes like the Warli, Kokna, and Dhodia but not the Onge tribe. The tribes here are primarily engaged in agriculture and forest-based occupations. Daman and Diu, in contrast, has a smaller tribal presence and is better known for its Portuguese colonial heritage blended with Gujarati culture. Tribal communities are less culturally prominent here compared to Dadra and Nagar Haveli or Lakshadweep. Lakshadweep’s population is predominantly Muslim with traditional social groups like the Koyas (landowners), Melacheris (laborers), and Aminidivi (boat builders). Their rich maritime culture revolves around seafaring and fishing, influenced by Islamic traditions. They speak Malayalam and Dhivehi, showcasing a cultural fusion unique to their island environment.
UPSC 2004General Knowledge · Contemporary Events: India
Q2276. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect: Under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), Below Poverty Line (BPL) families were initially provided 10 kg of foodgrains per family per month, which was later increased to 35 kg per family per month. However, there is no record of 50 kg per family per month being allocated.
Option (b) is correct: Under the Annapurna Scheme, elderly senior citizens aged 65 years or above, who qualify for the National Old Age Pension but do not receive it, are entitled to 10 kg of food grains per month, free of cost.
Option (c) is correct:: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment runs a scheme that provides 15 kg of foodgrains per person per month at BPL rates to indigent individuals residing in welfare institutions such as orphanages.
Option (d) is correct: The Ministry of Human Resource Development provides financial support to the Mid-day Meal Scheme, which benefits Class I to V students in Government and Government-aided schools.
UPSC 2004General Knowledge · Contemporary Events: India
Q2277. Which one of the following was the largest IT software and services exporter in India during the year 2002-03?
Explanation
Largest IT Software & Services Exporter in India (2002-03): During the financial year 2002-03, India’s IT industry was dominated by a few major players, with Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) emerging as the largest IT software and services exporter.
Additional insight:
India’s software services exports (excluding overseas commercial presence) rose 2.8% to $190.7 billion in 2023-24, as per RBI’s annual survey on software and IT-enabled services (ITES) exports. The US was the major software export destination (54 % share), followed by Europe (31% share)
UPSC 2004General Knowledge · Contemporary Events: India
Q2278. Consider the following statements: 1. The Oil Pool Account of Government of India was dismantled with effect from 1-4-2002 2. Subsidies on PDS kerosene and domestic LPG are borne by Consolidated Fund of India 3. An expert committee headed by Dr. R. A. Mashelkar to formulate a national auto fuel policy recommended that Bharat Stage - II Emission Norms should be applied throughout the country by 1 April, 2004 Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement (1) is correct: The Oil Pool Account, which regulated petroleum pricing, was dismantled on April 1, 2002, enabling market-driven prices.
Statement (2) is correct: Post-dismantling, subsidies on PDS kerosene and LPG shifted to the Consolidated Fund of India.
Statement (3) is incorrect: The Mashelkar Committee recommended nationwide BS-II norms from April 1, 2005, not 2004.
Additional insight:
Bharat Stage (BS) Emission Norms regulate vehicle emissions in India, aligning with Euro standards. BS-VI, implemented on April 1, 2020, skipped BS-V to curb pollution. The Mashelkar Committee, formed in 2001, recommended India’s Auto Fuel Policy, emphasizing phased emission norm upgrades. It proposed Bharat Stage-II (BS-II) nationwide by April 1, 2005, aligning with Euro standards. The committee also stressed cleaner fuels, technology adoption, and pollution reduction for sustainable mobility.
UPSC 2004General Knowledge · Contemporary Events: India
Q2279. Consider the following Assertion (A): For the first time, India had no trade deficit in the year 2002-03. Reason (R): For the first time, India’s exports crossed worth $ 50 billion in the year 2002-03. Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
Explanation
Assertion (A) is false: In the fiscal year 2002-03, India continued to experience a trade deficit. According to data, India’s exports were valued at $51.7 billion, while imports stood at $59.3 billion, resulting in a trade deficit of approximately $7.6 billion. Reason (R) is true: For the first time, India’s exports surpassed the $50 billion mark in 2002-03, reaching $51.7 billion, which was an 18.05% increase over the previous year’s exports of $43.8 billion.
Additional insight:
Trade deficit occurs when imports exceed exports, leading to a negative trade balance. Factors like rising crude oil imports, fluctuating global demand, and currency depreciation contribute to the deficit, impacting foreign exchange reserves and economic stability. India’s merchandise trade deficit widened to $21.94 billion in December 2024, up from $19.8 billion in December 2023. Cumulatively, the deficit for April-December 2024 reached $210.77 billion.
UPSC 2004General Knowledge · Contemporary Events: India
Q2280. Which one of the following is the correct decreasing sequence in terms of the value (in rupees) of the minerals produced in India in the year 2002-03?
Explanation
The correct decreasing sequence in terms of the value (in rupees) of minerals produced in India during the year 2002-03 is: Fuel minerals > Metallic minerals > Non-metallic minerals
Additional insight:
Current Scenario (as of 2023-24): In the Ministry of Mines in India (excluding atomic, fuel, and minor minerals) reached 1,41,239 crore, marking a 14.83% increase from the previous year. The composition of this production value is as follows:
Metallic Minerals: Contributed approximately 90.3% of the total value. Non-Metallic Minerals: Accounted for the remaining 9.7%. The current decreasing sequence, within the considered categories, in terms of the value of minerals produced is:
(a) Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families Below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg of foodgrains per month per family at subsidised price
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.