3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2004Polity · Parliament
Q2231. With reference to Indian public finance, consider the following statements: 1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of the Parliament. 2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State. 3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The receipts under Public accounts mainly consist of the receipts of National Savings Certificate, Provident funds and other deposits where the Govt. acts as a banker and returns the fund after completion of the contract. This account is operated by executive action. Therefore, the disbursement out of this account does not need authorization of the Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund and a Public Account of India and of the states under Article 266 and a Contingency Fund of India and for each State under Article 267.
Statement 3 is correct: The Railway Budget was presented separately from the General Budget till 2017. In the year when the question was asked The Railway Budget was presented separately and Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget were subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
UPSC 2004Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q2232. Consider the following statements: 1. The National Housing Bank the apex institution of housing finance in India, was set up as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India 2. The Small Industries Development Bank of India was established as a whollyowned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The National Housing Bank, the apex institution of housing finance in India. It was established on July 9, 1988, under the National Housing Bank Act of 1987. It was initially set up as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). However, in 2019, the ownership structure of NHB underwent a significant change. The Government of India acquired the entire stake from the RBI, making NHB a wholly-owned entity of the Government. Given that the question pertains to the year 2004 so the statement is correct.
Statement 2 is correct: The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) was established on April 2, 1990, through an Act of Parliament. It was initially incorporated as a whollyowned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI). The Shares of SIDBI are now held by the Government of India and twenty-two other institutions / public sector banks / insurance companies owned or controlled by the Central Government. Its key functions are:
Serves as the Principal Financial Institution for the MSME sector. Promotes, finances, and facilitates the development of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). Provides credit, refinance, and developmental support to small industries. Plays a vital role in employment generation and inclusive economic development. Its operations support the government’s initiatives for the growth of small scale industries.
UPSC 2004Science and Technology · Physics: Mechanics
Q2233. A weightless rubber balloon is filled with 200 cc of water. Its weight in water is equal to:
Explanation
The question is based on the principle of buoyancy, which means that an object fully or partly immersed in fluid experiences an upthrust or buoyant force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. When a weightless balloon filled with water is immersed into water, it displaces an amount of water equivalent to its own volume, in this case, 200 cc. The weight of this displaced water in terms of gravitational pull is equal to the weight of the balloon under these conditions. Since both weights are identical (as the balloon is also filled with water), they cancel out each other, resulting in a net weight of the balloon in water to be zero.
UPSC 2004Indian Economy · Taxation
Q2234. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the task force on direct taxes under the chairmanship of Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar in the year 2002?
Explanation
The Kelkar Committee Report (2002) did not recommend raising the personal income tax exemption limit specifically for widows to Rs. 1.20 lakh. Instead, the report focused on simplifying the tax system and broadening the tax base. Key recommendations included:
Abolition of Wealth Tax to streamline the tax structure. Elimination of standard deduction for salaried employees to simplify personal income tax calculations. Exemption from tax on dividends and capital gains from listed equities to encourage market participation. The report emphasized promoting economic grow-th by reducing distortions in the tax system and encouraging compliance.
UPSC 2004Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q2235. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
Explanation
The National Human Rights Commission of India (NHRC), established on October 12, 1993, under the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993, promotes and protects human rights in India. It investigates complaints, recommends actions, reviews policies, and advises the government.
Option (c) is correct: Originally, the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993 allowed only a retired Chief Justice of India to be appointed as NHRC Chairperson. In 2019, this was amended to include retired Supreme Court judges as eligible candidates.
UPSC 2004Polity · Subordinate Court
Q2236. Consider the following statements: 1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge 2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts. 3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State. 4. When the sessions judge awards a death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
The District and Sessions Court is one of the highest courts in a district, and it plays a crucial role in the judicial system of India.
Statement 1 is correct: The highest criminal court at the district level is indeed the Court of the District and Sessions Judge. This court deals with serious criminal cases, including those that may involve the death penalty.
Statement 2 is correct: District Judges are appointed by the Governor of the state, but the appointment is made in consultation with the High Court, ensuring that the process follows legal norms and includes judicial oversight.
Statement 3 is correct: To be eligible for the appointment of District Judge, a person must be either an advocate or pleader with at least seven years of standing or an officer in the judicial service of the Union or State. This ensures that the person has the required legal experience and qualifications.
Statement 4 is correct: When a Sessions Judge awards the death penalty, it must be confirmed by the High Court. This is a safeguard to ensure that the most severe punishment is not handed down without adequate review by a higher court. Thus, all four statements are correct.
UPSC 2004Polity · Centre-State Relations
Q2237. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?
Explanation
Article 257 states that the executive power of every State must be exercised in a manner that does not impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union. This provision ensures the supremacy of Union executive power in matters where coordination or cooperation is required between Union and State governments.
UPSC 2004Polity · Centre-State Relations
Q2238. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Explanation
Option (b) is incorrect: Stock Exchange is incorrectly matched. It is in the Union List (Entry 48), not the Concurrent List, as it pertains to national economic regulation. Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, classifies subjects under the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. Options (a), (c) and (d) are correct:
Forests: Correctly matched. Transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Post Office Savings Bank: Correctly matched. It is in the Union List (Entry 39) as postal services are a central function. Public Health: Correctly matched. It is in the State List (Entry 6), reflecting the state’s responsibility for health-related issues.
UPSC 2004Modern History · Prominent Personalities in Modern History
Q2239. The name of the famous person of India who returned the Knighthood conferred on him by the British Government as a token of protest against the atrocities in Punjab in 1919 was:
Explanation
Rabindranath Tagore, the Nobel laureate and poet was knighted by the British Crown in 1915. However, in 1919 following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the repressive Rowlatt Act he renounced his Knighthood in a letter to the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford as an act of powerful protest against British atrocities. His act was widely celebrated as a bold statement of defiance.
Additional insight:
In a strongly worded letter to the British Viceroy, Tagore wrote: "The time has come when badges of honor make our shame glaring in their incongruous context of humiliation, and I for my part wish to stand shorn of all special distinctions, by the side of my countrymen."
UPSC 2004Modern History · Prominent Personalities in Modern History
Q2240. During the Indian freedom struggle, who among the following proposed that Swaraj should be defined as complete independence free from all foreign control?
Explanation
Maulana Hasrat Mohani, a prominent figure in the Indian freedom movement, was a strong advocate for complete independence from British rule. He was one of the key leaders who pushed for the idea that Swaraj, or self-rule, should be interpreted as absolute freedom, devoid of any foreign influence or control. His stance was a significant departure from the moderate demands for self-governance and paved the way for more radical calls for full sovereignty during the independence struggle. Hasrat Mohani started bringing out a magazine in the name of ‘Urdu-e-Mualla’ in 1903.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
2231
2004
(b) 2 and 3
2232
2004
(c) Both 1 and 2
2233
2004
(d) zero
2234
2004
(b) Increase in the exemption limit of personal income to Rs. 1.20 lakh for widows
2235
2004
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
2236
2004
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2237
2004
(a) Article 257
2238
2004
(b) Stock Exchange: Concurrent List
2239
2004
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
2240
2004
(b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.