3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2004Modern History · Early Phase National Movement (1885-1905)
Q2191. Consider the following statements: 1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta. 2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji 3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow in 1916 and concluded the Lucknow Pact Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
The Indian National Congress (INC), founded in 1885, initially aimed to promote political dialogue between Indians and the British government. Early sessions focused on constitutional reforms, Indian rights, and critique of economic impact of British rule.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The first session of the Indian National Congress (INC) was held in Bombay (now Mumbai) in 1885, not in Calcutta.
Statement 2 is correct: The Second Session of the Indian National Congress (1886) was indeed presided over by Dadabhai Naoroji.
Statement 3 is correct: The Indian National Congress and the Muslim League held their sessions in Lucknow in 1916, where they concluded the Lucknow Pact. The Lucknow Pact was a historic agreement, marking a significant step towards Hindu-Muslim unity and paving the way for joint political efforts in the struggle for self-rule.
UPSC 2004Medieval History · Vijayanagara Empire
Q2192. Consider the following statements: 1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and seized the throne for himself, starting the Saluva dynasty. 2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself. 3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya. 4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
The Vijayanagara Empire experienced notable dynastic transitions, beginning with the founding Sangama dynasty, which was replaced by the Saluva dynasty due to internal instability. This was followed by the rise of the Tuluva dynasty. All the Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct:
The Vijayanagar Empire witnessed significant dynastic changes, beginning with Narasimha Saluva, who ended the Sangama dynasty and established the Saluva dynasty. Subsequently, Vira Narasimha seized throne by deposing the last Saluva ruler, and his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya succeeded him and became one of the greatest rulers of the empire. Following his death, Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya.
UPSC 2004Geography · Climatology
Q2193. Assertion (A): Thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator. Reason (R): High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the Equator.
Explanation
Insolation, or the solar radiation received by the Earth, plays a crucial role in driving atmospheric circulation by heating the surface unevenly. This creates temperature and pressure differences, which, in turn, influence atmospheric thickness and convection patterns. Assertion (A) is true: Thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator. The Equator experiences greater atmospheric thickness due to intense heating, causing air to expand and rise to higher altitudes, increasing the vertical extent of the atmosphere. Reason (R) is true: The Equator receives high levels of insolation year-round due to its position, with the Sun being directly overhead during the equinoxes and nearly overhead at other times, contributing to sustained heating. This results in strong convection currents that lift air to higher altitudes, contributing to the greater atmospheric thickness. Reason(R) explains Assertion(A): Because the strong insolation and convection over the Equator lead to the expansion and lifting of air, directly causing the atmosphere to be thicker in this region compared to higher latitudes.
UPSC 2004Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q2194. Assertion (A): India does not export natural rubber. Reason (R): About 97% of India’s demand for natural rubber is met from domestic production.
Explanation
Assertion (A) is false: India does export natural rubber, although in limited quantities. While India is primarily a net importer of natural rubber to meet domestic demand, it also exports small amounts, especially of certain grades like RSS (Ribbed Smoked Sheets). Reason(R) is True: In the early years of 2000s, India was a major producer of natural rubber, and around 97% of its domestic demand for natural rubber was met from domestic production.
Additional insight:
Natural Rubber (NR) is a commercial plantation crop from the tree species, Hevea brasiliensis. Natural Rubber is grown in tropical humid climatic conditions. Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia, Vietnam, China and India are the major natural Rubber producers globally. Currently India is among the top four largest producers of natural rubber in the world. In recent years, India’s domestic demand for natural rubber is increasing with a significant gap between production and consumption, leading to a substantial reliance on imports to meet the demand shortfall. Currently, NR consumption in India is 14.16 lakh tonnes which is estimated to go up by 5% and close at 14.86 lakh tonnes by end of FY24-25." The gap of around 5.5 lakh tonnes is mostly made up of imported Natural Rubber (NR).
UPSC 2004Medieval History · Bhakti and Sufi Movement
Q2195. Which one of the following sequences indicates the correct chronological order?
Explanation
Shankaracharya (8th century AD) established Advaita Vedanta, emphasizing the non-duality of Brahman. He also established 4 mathas at Jyotirmath, Dwarka, Puri and Sringeri. Ramanuja (11th-12th century AD) later founded Vishishtadvaita Vedanta (qualified non dualism), advocating devotion to a personal god. He played a pivotal role in the Bhakti movement, promoting inclusive spirituality and reforming temple rituals. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (15th-16th century AD) was a key figure in the Bhakti movement in Bengal, popularizing devotional worship of Lord Krishna. Their sequence reflects the historical progression of these philosophical and devotional traditions.
UPSC 2004Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q2196. Consider the following statement: India continues to be dependent on imports to meet the requirement of oilseeds in the country because: 1. Farmers prefer to grow food grains with highly remunerative support prices. 2. Most of the cultivation of oilseed crops continues to be dependent on rainfall. 3. Oils from the seeds of free origin and rice bran have remained unexploited. 4. It is far cheaper to import oilseeds than to cultivate the oilseed crops. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The government provides higher and more stable Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for food grains like rice and wheat, which incentivizes farmers to prioritize these crops over oilseeds.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2004-2005, much of India’s oilseed farming depended on monsoon rains, making it sensitive to weather changes. The Economic Survey 2004-05 noted that irregular rainfall in 2004 caused a big drop in the production of rainfed crops like oilseeds and pulses. Most oilseed farming in India still relies on rainfall.
Statement 3 is correct: By 2004, India was producing 650,000 tons of rice bran oil from 4 million tons of rice bran through solvent extraction. However, this was only half of the potential, as the country’s paddy production could generate 9.8 million tons of rice bran annually, but only 5 million tons were processed. The untapped potential of rice bran oil and other non-tradition-al edible oils, like tree-borne oils, contributed to higher import dependence. By 2004, India produced 650,000 tons of rice bran oil from 4 million tons of rice bran, but only half of its 9.8 million-ton potential was utilized. Limited use of non-traditional edible oils like rice bran and tree-borne oils increased import dependence.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Oilseed’s import is not necessarily cheaper to import oilseeds. The import dependency is more because of inadequate domestic production rather than cost advantage.
UPSC 2004Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q2197. Consider the following statements: 1. Regarding the procurement of food-grains, the Government of India follows a procurement target rather than an open-ended procurement policy. 2. Government of India announces minimum support prices only for cereals. 3. For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and rice are issued by the Government of India at uniform central issue prices to the States/Union Territories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The government sets specific procurement targets for each crop season based on factors like estimated production, buffer stock requirements and market conditions. In case, there is no procurement target, the government allows the procurement agencies like the FCI to buy flexibly from the farmers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Government of India announces MSP for a variety of crops, including cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and commercial crops like cotton and jute.
Statement 3 is correct: Under the Targeted public Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and rice are allocated to States/Union Territories by the Government of India at uniform Central Issue Prices (CIP) for distribution to different categories, such as Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) and Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.
UPSC 2004Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q2198. Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India)
List-II (Provision)
A. Article 14
1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex place of birth or any of term.
B. Article 15
2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India.
C. Article 16
3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
D. Article 17
4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.
Explanation
A is matched with 2: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within India, ensuring that no person is discriminated against unfairly by the state. B is matched with 1: Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them thereby promoting social justice and inclusivity. C is matched with 4: Article 16 provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of employment or appointment to any office under the State. No citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence. D is matched with 3: Article 17 abolishes untouchability, a social evil, and forbids its practice in any form, aiming to uplift marginalized communities and promote social harmony. Together, these provisions protect individual dignity and promote equal treatment in all spheres.
UPSC 2004Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q2199. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall the employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?
Explanation
Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories, mines, or any other hazardous employment. This is part of the Fundamental Rights under the Right against Exploitation. Options(b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
Article 45 pertains to the Directive Principle of State Policy, focusing on providing free and compulsory education for children below 14 years. Article 330 relates to the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People (Lok sabha). Article 368 deals with the amendment provisions in the Indian Constitution.
UPSC 2004General Knowledge · General Awareness: World
Q2200. Consider the following international language: 1. Arabic 2. French 3. Spanish The correct sequence of the language given above in the decreasing order of the number of their speakers is:
Explanation
Spanish has over 540 million native and second-language speakers worldwide. It is the second most spoken language by native speakers after Mandarin Chinese. Arabic has over 420 million native and second-language speakers worldwide. It is widely spoken in the Middle East and North Africa. French has over 300 million total speakers (including native and second-language speakers). It is spoken in France, parts of Africa, Canada, and other regions.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
2191
2004
(c) 2 and 3
2192
2004
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2193
2004
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2194
2004
(d) A is false but R is true
2195
2004
(a) Shankaracharya-Ramanuja-Chaitanya
2196
2004
(b) 1, 2 and 3
2197
2004
(c) 1 and 3
2198
2004
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
2199
2004
(a) Article 24
2200
2004
(a) 3, 1, 2
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This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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