3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1831–1840 of 3238 questions
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UPSC 2007Geography · Oceanography
Q1831. Consider the following statements: 1. Either of the two belts over the oceans at about 30° to 35°N and S Latitudes is known as Horse latitude. 2. Horse latitudes are low pressure belts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Horse Latitudes are sub-tropical regions located at approximately 30° to 35° North and South latitudes. These are high-pressure zones characterized by calm winds and minimal precipitation. The name "Horse Latitudes" is believed to have originated from the historical practice of sailors throwing horses overboard to conserve water when ships were stranded in these calm regions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Horse Latitudes are high-pres-sure belts, not low-pressure belts. These regions are associated with the subtropical high-pressure zones, where air from the equator descends, creating stable and dry conditions. The high-pressure conditions result from the descending air of the Hadley cells, which suppresses cloud formation and leads to arid climates. Many of the world’s major deserts, such as the Sahara and the Australian Outback, are situated under the Horse latitudes. Low-pressure belts, on the other hand, are found near the equator (Intertropical Convergence Zone) and at higher latitudes (subpolar lows).
UPSC 2007Medieval History · Miscellaneous
Q1832. Where is the famous Vijaya Vittala temple having its 56 carved pillars emitting musical notes located?
Explanation
The Vijaya Vittala Temple in Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage site, was built during King Devaraya II’s reign in the 15th century. Dedicated to Lord Vittala, an incarnation of Lord Vishnu, the temple is famous for its 56 musical pillars that produce melodic sounds when struck. Its most notable feature is the stone chariot in front of the Ranga Mantapa, dedicated to Garuda, with two elephants pulling it. The temple showcases the exceptional craftsmanship of the artisans of the Vijayanagara Empire.
UPSC 2007Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q1833. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?
Explanation
According to the 91st Constitution Amendment Act,2003, the number of ministers, including the Prime Minister or Chief Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total membership of the Lok Sabha at the Centre or the Legislative Assembly at the State level. It was formulated primarily to address concerns about the excessive size of the Council of Ministers and to strengthen anti-defection laws. The Act aimed to streamline the functioning of the Indian government and curb political opportunism.
Additional insight:
The 93rd Amendment Act of 2005 added Clause (5) to Article 15 of the Indian Constitution, allowing the government to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes in education. This includes reservations in private educational institutions, both aided and unaided by the government, except for minority institutions. The Ninety-fifth Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Ninety-fifth Amendment) Act, 2009, extended the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and representation of the Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies for another ten years, up to 26 January 2020. However, the Anglo-Indian representation was also extended, but it was later abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 was enacted to provide constitutional recognition and protection to cooperative societies in India
UPSC 2007Polity · Emergency Provisions
Q1834. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India: 1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament. 2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of Supreme Court and the High Courts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
A Financial Emergency under Article 360 of the Indian Constitution can be declared if the President believes that India’s financial stability or credit is threatened. It allows the central government to assume control over state finances and redistribute resources.
Statement 1 is correct: Article 360 of the Indian Constitution specifies that a proclamation of financial emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months of being issued; if not, it will automatically cease to operate after this period. Statement given aligns with the provisions under Article 360, making this statement accurate.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While it is true that during a financial emergency, the President has the authority to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of persons serving in connection with the Union’s affairs, it is not true that Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are exempt from such reductions. In fact, the President is empowered to apply these measures to all public servants, including judges, during a financial emergency. Therefore, this statement is wrong.
UPSC 2007Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q1835. NASA’s Deep Impact space mission was employed to take detailed pictures of which comet nucleus?
Explanation
Option (d) is correct: Tempel 1 was the target of NASA’s Deep Impact mission launched in 2005. The mission involved sending an impactor spacecraft to collide with the comet’s nucleus, creating a crater and allowing scientists to study the composition and structure of the comet’s interior. The mission provided valuable data about the formation of the solar system.
Option (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Halley’s Comet is one of the most famous comets which is known for its periodic appearance every 76 years. It was last observed in detail by the European Space Agency’s Giotto mission in 1986. Hale-Bopp was a bright comet that became visible to the naked eye in 1997. It was extensively studied by ground-based telescopes and space observatories. Comet Hyakutake was another bright comet that passed close to Earth in 1996. It was studied by ground-based telescopes and space observatories but was not the target of the Deep Impact mission.
UPSC 2007Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q1836. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair (a) is correctly matched: COBE (Cosmic Background Explorer) was a satellite launched by NASA to study the cosmic microwave background radiation and provide evidence supporting the Big Bang theory. Pair (b) is correctly matched: The FLAG Alcatel-Lucent Optical Network (FALCON) submarine cable system is a 11,859 km undersea cable connecting multiple countries, including India, Sri Lanka, and Egypt, facilitating international telecommunications. Pair (c) is correctly matched: Discovery was a part of NASA’s Space Shuttle program and completed numerous missions. It conducted various missions, including deploying satellites, servicing the Hubble Space Telescope, and assembling the International Space Station (ISS). Pair (d) is incorrectly matched: Space Shuttle Atlantis was one of NASA’s reusable spacecraft used for human spaceflight missions. It is not a space station but a space shuttle that transported astronauts and cargo to space.
UPSC 2007Modern History · Indian National Movement III (1930-1947)
Q1837. Assertion (A): According to the Wavell Plan, the number of Hindu and Muslim members in the Executive Council were to be equal. Reason (R): Wavell thought that this arrangement would have avoided the partition of India.
Explanation
The Wavell Plan (1945), proposed by Lord Wavell, aimed to resolve the political deadlock between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League. It proposed forming a framework for an interim government. Assertion (A) is true: According to the Wavell Plan, the number of Hindu and Muslim members in the Executive Council were to be equal. Reason (R) is false: Wavell Plan did not aim to prevent partition but rather to create a framework for political dialogue and the transfer of power from British rule to Indian self-rule.
UPSC 2007General Knowledge · Contemporary Events: World
Q1838. Which of the following countries signed the Tshwane Declaration in October 2006?
Explanation
The Tshwane Declaration was signed between India and South Africa in October 2006. The declaration marked a significant enhancement of the bilateral relations between the two countries and aimed to strengthen cooperation in various areas such as trade, investment, science and technology, and cultural exchange. The declaration was named after Tshwane, the metropolitan municipality in which Pretoria, one of South Africa’s capital cities, is located.
UPSC 2007General Knowledge · Contemporary Events: World
Q1839. Recently, the European Union and six other countries including India signed the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) Project. Which one of the following was not a signatory to it?
Explanation
Canada is not signatory to ITER projects.
ITER is a 35-nation fusion energy project launched in 1985, headquartered in France, aiming to prove fusion as a large-scale, carbon-free energy source through the world’s largest tokamak. Its members include China, the EU, India, Japan, Korea, Russia, and the US, with the EU covering 45.6% of costs and others, including India, sharing 9.1% each.
UPSC 2007General Knowledge · Contemporary Events: World
Q1840. How is Steve Fossett known as
Explanation
Steve Fossett was an American adventurer known for setting numerous world records in aviation and sailing. In 2005, he became the first person to fly a plane solo nonstop around the world without refueling, which was one of his most notable achievements. He is not known for hunting crocodiles, swimming across the Atlantic, or climbing Mount Everest. Thus, the correct answer is for completing the longest nonstop flight around the globe.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1831
2007
(a) 1 only
1832
2007
(c) Hampi
1833
2007
(a) 91st
1834
2007
(a) 1 only
1835
2007
(d) Tempel 1
1836
2007
(d) Atlantis: Space station
1837
2007
(c) A is true but R is false
1838
2007
(b) India and South Africa
1839
2007
(a) Canada
1840
2007
(b) for completing the longest nonstop flight around the globe
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.