3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2010Indian Economy · Important Concepts in Economy
Q1551. With reference to the institution of Banking Ombudsman in India, which one of the statements is not correct?
Explanation
The Banking Ombudsman Scheme in India was established to provide an expeditious and cost-free forum for bank customers to resolve complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks. The scheme has undergone several revisions, with the most recent being the Reserve Bank - Integrated Ombudsman Scheme 2021 which integrates previous ombudsman schemes to streamline the grievance redressal process.
Option (a) is correct: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) appoints the Banking Ombudsman to address customer grievances against banks.
Option (b) is correct: The Banking Ombudsman Scheme allows Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) with accounts in India to file complaints. NRIs can lodge complaints related to their banking transactions in India.
Option (c) is incorrect: The orders passed by the Banking Ombudsman are not final and binding. If either party (the complainant or the bank) is dissatisfied with the Ombudsman’s decision, they can appeal to the Appellate Authority (the Deputy Governor of the RBI) within 30 days of the order.
Option (d) is correct: The Banking Ombudsman Scheme provides a free and transparent mechanism for resolving complaints. Customers do not have to pay any fee to file a complaint.
UPSC 2010Science and Technology · Biology: Botany
Q1552. Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason:
Explanation
Mon 863 maize was genetically modified to produce a protein called Cry3Bb1 derived from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt). This protein is toxic to the corn rootworm which is a major pest that damages maize crops. By incorporating this trait, Mon 863 reduces the need for chemical pesticides and improves crop yields.
UPSC 2010Indian Economy · Important Concepts in Economy
Q1553. Consider the following statements: The functions of commercial banks in India include: 1. Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers 2. Acting as executors and trustees of wills Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
"Commercial Banks refer to both scheduled and non-scheduled commercial banks which are regulated under Banking Regulation Act, 1949." Commercial banks operate on a ‘for-profit’ basis. They primarily engage in the acceptance of deposit and extend loans to the general public, businesses and the government.
Statement 1 is correct: Commercial banks often have tie-ups with brokerage firms or have their own investment wings to assist customers in buying and selling shares and securities. This service falls under the category of investment and wealth management services. Banks like SBI, ICICI, and HDFC Bank provide these services through demat accounts and trading platforms.
Statement 2 is correct: Many commercial banks have specialized departments to act as executors and trustees for the wills of their customers. In this role, banks manage the estate of deceased individuals and ensure that assets are distributed according to the terms of the will. Examples include RBI-autho-rized banks offering trust services.
UPSC 2010Science and Technology · Biology: Botany
Q1554. Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. Coffee plants require a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas. 2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
Explanation
Option (a) is correct: Statement 1 is correct:
Coffee plants (Coffea arabica and Coffea robusta) thrive in hot tropical climates with temperatures between 15°C and 28°C, high humidity, and well-distributed rainfall. They are typically grown in regions near the equator such as Brazil, Colombia, and Ethiopia. Tea plants (Camellia sinensis) can be grown in both tropical and subtropical regions. They prefer cooler climates with temperatures between 13°C and 30°C and require well-distributed rainfall. Tea is cultivated in countries like India (Assam, Darjeeling), China, and Kenya.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Coffee plants are more commonly propagated from seeds. Seeds are sown to produce seedlings, which are then transplanted to the field. This method ensures genetic diversity among coffee plants. Tea is propagated by both seeds and stem cuttings. The vegetative propagation (stem cuttings) is more common in commercial cultivation because it ensures uniformity in plant characteristics and quality. Differences between Coffee and Tea Cultivation:
Factor Coffee Tea Climate Warm, humid tropical climate Cool, humid subtropical/tropical climate Temperature 15°C - 30°C 13°C - 30°C Rainfall 1,500 - 2,500 mm (moderate) 1,500 - 3,000 mm (higher) Altitude 600 - 2,000 meters 150 - 2,000 meters Soil Type Well-drained, slightly acidic (pH 6-6.5), loamy or volcanic soil Deep, fertile, well-drained acidic soil (pH 4.5-5.5) Shade vs. Sunlight Prefers shade for humidity Prefers open sunlight Temperature Sensitivity Sensitive to frost and extreme heat More adaptable but sensitive to extreme cold Major Growing Regions (India) Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu (Western Ghats) Assam, West Bengal (Darjeeling), Tamil Nadu (Nilgiris), Kerala Harvesting Beans are handpicked, fermented, dried, and roasted Leaves are plucked, withered, oxidized (for black tea), and dried Processing Roasting required before consumption Processed into different types (green, black, white, oolong)
UPSC 2010Science and Technology · Biology: Botany
Q1555. With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices: 1. Crop rotation 2. Sand fences 3. Terracing 4. Wind breaks Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India.
Explanation
Option 1 is correct: Crop rotation helps maintain soil fertility by alternating crops that deplete nutrients with those that replenish them. It also reduces soil erosion by providing continuous ground cover. Thus, it plays a crucial role in soil conservation and sustainable agriculture.
Option 2 is correct: Sand fences are barriers placed to prevent the movement of sand and reduce soil erosion in arid and semi-arid regions, such as Rajasthan.
Option 3 is correct: Terracing involves cutting steps into slopes to reduce water runoff and prevent soil erosion, particularly in hilly areas. It is widely practiced in regions like the Himalayas.
Option 4 is correct: Wind breaks are rows of trees or shrubs planted to block the wind, reducing wind erosion and protecting the topsoil in open areas.
UPSC 2010Science and Technology · Biology: Botany
Q1556. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of bio- diesel in India? 1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India 2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half is oleic acid. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Pongamia pinnata, also known as the Indian beech tree, grows naturally in arid and semi-arid regions of India. It is highly drought-tolerant, making it a suitable biodiesel crop for areas with limited water availability.
Statement 2 is correct: The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content(oleic acid) which is a key component in the production of biodiesel. The high oil yield from the seeds makes Pongamia a viable and sustainable biodiesel source. Recently, it has been used for ethanol production.
UPSC 2010Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q1557. Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine?
Explanation
Option (b) is correct: The major challenge in developing a malaria vaccine is that humans do not achieve complete immunity through natural infection. Partial immunity can develop after repeated exposure but it is not sufficient to prevent reinfection as the immune system fails to completely clear the parasite. The malaria parasite’s high mutation rate enables it to evade the immune system, further complicating efforts to develop an effective vaccine.
Option (a) is incorrect: Although malaria is caused by various Plasmodium species (e.g., P. falciparum, P. vivax) but this diversity is not the primary obstacle to vaccine development. Vaccines can target shared stages of the parasite’s lifecycle, allowing scientists to address multiple species. While species variation presents a challenge, it is not the main barrier in creating an effective vaccine against malaria.
Option (c) is incorrect: Vaccines have been successfully developed for a wide range of pathogens, including viruses, bacteria, and parasites like malaria.
Option (d) is incorrect: Though humans are the intermediate host for the Plasmodium parasite, they are also crucial in the parasite’s lifecycle. The mosquito is the definitive host, where the parasite undergoes sexual reproduction. In humans the parasite undergoes asexual reproduction inside the liver and red blood cells, making humans essential in the lifecycle.
UPSC 2010Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q1558. Consider the following statements: 1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV / AIDS 2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Explanation
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that primarily affects the liver and can lead to chronic disease. HIV is a virus that attacks the immune system, weakening the body’s ability to fight infections.
Statement 1 is correct: Hepatitis B transmission occurs through contact with infected blood, semen, or other body fluids. It’s 50 to 100 times more contagious than HIV because it can survive longer outside the body and can be transmitted with a smaller amount of the virus. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) needs a higher viral load and specific conditions to spread.
Statement 2 is correct: The Hepatitis B virus attacks and damages the liver, causing inflammation and scarring (called cirrhosis). This chronic inflammation weakens the liver and makes it more susceptible to liver cancer. Liver cancer specifically hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is strongly associated with chronic HBV infection. People with chronic Hepatitis B infection have a much higher risk of developing HCC compared to those who do not have the infection.
UPSC 2010Geography · Places and Locations: World Geography
Q1559. Which one of the following can come across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca?
Explanation
Option (d) is correct: Singapore is located at the southern tip of the Malay Peninsula at the entrance to the Strait of Malacca. It is one of the key landmarks along this waterway and serves as a critical port in the region.
Option (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Bali is an Indonesian island located to the southeast of Java. It is not directly in the path of the Strait of Malacca. Brunei is located on the island of Borneo. It is far to the east of the Strait of Malacca, and is not near the strait. Java is an island of Indonesia located to the south of the Strait of Malacca. It lies relatively close to the Strait but it is not directly within the strait.
UPSC 2009Geography · Solar System and Evolution of Earth
Q1560. Which one of the following planets has the largest number of natural satellites or moons?
Explanation
As of 2009, Jupiter had the highest number of known moons (63 at that time). Jupiter’s large number of moons is attributed to its massive size and strong gravitational pull, which allows it to capture a variety of objects into its orbit. However in future years Saturn has since been found to have more moons than Jupiter.
Additional insight:
As of October 2023, Jupiter has 95 confirmed moons, making it the planet with the second-largest number of moons in the solar system. Some of Jupiter’s most famous moons include Ganymede (the largest moon in the solar system), Europa, Io, and Callisto. Saturn has 146 confirmed moons which makes it the planet with the largest number of moons in the solar system. Some of Saturn’s notable moons include Titan (the second-largest moon in the solar system and the only moon with a dense atmosphere), Enceladus, and Rhea.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1551
2010
(c) The orders passed by the Banking Ombudsman are final and binding on the parties concerned.
1552
2010
(b) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant
1553
2010
(c) Both 1 and 2
1554
2010
(a) 1 only
1555
2010
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1556
2010
(c) Both 1 and 2
1557
2010
(b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection
1558
2010
(c) Both 1 and 2
1559
2010
(d) Singapore
1560
2009
(a) Jupiter
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This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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