Previous Year UPSC Questions

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas. Coffee thrives in a hot and humid tropical climate, requiring temperatures between 15°C and 28°C with well-distributed rainfall. Traditional coffee producing regions include the southern states of Karnataka (largest producer), Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. Non-traditional regions consist of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha, located in the Eastern Ghats of India. Tea can grow in both tropical and subtropical with temperaturerange 20-30°C requiring high humidity and well-distributed rainfall (100-200 cm) areas. For example, it is cultivated in Assam (tropical) and Darjeeling (subtropical) regions. Assam is the largest producer of tea in the country.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is not propagated by stem cuttings only. Coffee is primarily propagated by seeds, but vegetative propagation methods like cuttings and grafting are also used. Tea is propagated both by seeds and vegetative methods, including stem cuttings and grafting, depending on the desired plant characteristics. In tea cultivation, cuttings are planted either upright or at a slight angle, ensuring that the leaves do not come into contact with the soil. After developing roots, they are transferred to the field approximately 12 months later. Seeds, on the other hand, are sown at a depth of 1.5 to 2.5 cm.

Explanation

Soil conservation techniques aim to prevent soil erosion, improve soil fertility, and maintain ecological balance.

Option 1 is correct: Rotating crops helps maintain soil fertility by alternating nutrient-exhausting crops with nitrogen-fixing ones, reducing soil degradation and pest infestations. Legumes are rotated with cereals to fix nitrogen in the soil in states like Punjab and Haryana.

Option 2 is correct: Sand fences are barriers made of wood or other materials to trap sand and stabilize soil in areas prone to wind erosion, such as coastal or desert regions. It is practised in arid regions like Rajasthan, where wind erosion is a problem.

Option 3 is correct: Terracing involves creating step-like structures on slopes, which slows down water runoff, prevents soil erosion, and conserves moisture, making it highly effective in hilly areas.

Option 4 is correct: Wind breaks are rows of trees or shrubs planted to reduce wind speed and protect soil from erosion, especially in open fields. It is commonly used in hilly regions like the Himalayas and Western Ghats.

Explanation

The National Development Council (NDC) in 2007 adopted a resolution to launch a Food Security Mission comprising rice, wheat and pulses to increase the annual production of rice by 10 million tonnes, wheat by 8 million tonnes and pulses by 2 million tonnes by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011-12). Accordingly, a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, ‘National Food Security Mission’ (NFSM), was launched in October 2007. Initially, NFSM (2007-08) focused on rice, wheat, and pulses only. The objectives of NFSM are:

Increase production of specific crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement. Ensure sustainability by focusing on improved technologies and efficient resource use. Enhance farm profitability and rural livelihoods.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Paddy fields are typically flooded, creating anaerobic (oxygen-deprived) conditions. Soil saturation in wetland rice fields restricts oxygen transport, creating anaerobic conditions due to submergence. This environment supports the activity of methanogenic bacteria, which produce methane (CH₄), a potent greenhouse gas. Rice cultivation is a significant source of methane emissions globally.

Statement 2 is correct: Nitrogen-based fertilizers, which enhance crop yield, stimulate soil microbes to convert nitrogen into nitrous oxide (N₂O), another potent greenhouse gas. Microbial processes like nitrification and denitrification in the soil release nitrous oxide, especially in poorly drained, waterlogged soils. Nitrous oxide has a global warming potential 265 times greater than CO₂ over 100 years.

Explanation

Energy crops, also called agroenergy or bioenergy crops, are cultivated specifically to generate biomass for renewable energy production. These crops can thrive on degraded, waste, saline, or waterlogged lands. In addition to providing a sustainable energy source, energy crops contribute to reducing greenhouse gas emissions. They also play a role in enhancing water quality and supporting wildlife habitats.

Option (a) is incorrect: Jatropha is primarily cultivated for biodiesel, as its seeds contain oil that can be converted to biodiesel. It is not used for ethanol production.

Option (b) is correct: Maize (corn) is a major crop used for ethanol production. It is rich in starch, which is fermented by yeast into ethanol.India is expanding maize-based ethanol production as part of the Ethanol Blending Program (EBP) to reduce petrol imports.

Option (c) is incorrect: Pongamia (Indian beech) is mainly used for biodiesel production due to the oil content in its seeds. It is not used for ethanol production.

Option (d) is incorrect: Sunflower, with very low sugar content, is primarily grown for edible oil production. It is not a significant crop for ethanol production.

Explanation

The share of excise duty in gross tax revenue saw a significant decline in the five years leading up to 2010. This was primarily due to the shift toward service tax and the rationalization of indirect taxes. The reduction in excise duty rates for essential goods, introduction of exemptions, and gradual steps toward the Goods and Services Tax (GST) framework also contributed to this trend. According to the Economic Survey 2009-10, excise duty collections as a percentage of total revenue declined as the government focused on reducing cascading effects in indirect taxation to promote industrial growth and exports. This shift in taxation policy marked the transition of India’s indirect tax structure to a more consumption-based taxation system. Note: If this question were asked today, excise duty has been largely replaced by GST for most goods, further reducing its contribution to tax revenue.

Explanation

Consumer Disputes Redressal in India is a three-tier mechanism established under the Consumer Protection Act, aimed at addressing grievances related to goods and services. It comprises District Forums, State Commissions, and the National Commission, ensuring accessible and speedy justice for consumers while protecting their rights. Statement (a) is correct: The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (revised in 2019), allows the State Government to establish more than one District Consumer Forum within a district if it considers it necessary. This flexibility ensures that consumer disputes are addressed efficiently, especially in populous or commercially active districts. Statement (b) is correct: The composition of the District Forum mandates that at least one of its members must be a woman. This provision ensures gender representation and sensitivity in handling consumer grievances, aligning with broader constitutional principles of equality and non-discrimination. Statement (c) is incorrect: The District Forum is empowered to entertain complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed 1 crore, as per the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The statement mentions a limit of 50 lakhs, which is inaccurate. Previously, under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, the limit was 20 lakhs, which was later increased up to 1 crore in the 2019 amendment. Statement (d) is correct: The State Government, acting as a representative of consumer interests, can file complaints on behalf of consumers with the District Forum. This mechanism allows the state to advocate for the collective rights of consumers and address widespread issues affecting the general populace.

Explanation

Lok Adalats are alternative dispute resolution forums established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide affordable, speedy, and amicable settlement of disputes. They emphasize conciliation and compromise, handling both pre-litigation cases and pending disputes in courts.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Lok Adalats have jurisdiction to settle disputes at both the pre-litigation stage and cases pending before any court. They aim to reduce the burden on courts and provide speedy justice through compromise and amicable settlements.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Lok Adalats can deal with both civil and certain criminal matters of a compoundable nature. These include disputes related to matrimonial issues, partition suits, motor vehicle claims, and cheque bounce cases under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.

Statement 3 is incorrect: A Lok Adalat consists not only of serving or retired judicial officers but also other members, such as lawyers, social workers, or professionals, who assist in mediating disputes. Hence, None of the statements are correct.

Explanation

The State Finance Commission (SFC) is the authority responsible for making recommendations to the Governor of a State regarding the principles for determining the taxes, duties, tolls, and fees that may be assigned to or appropriated by the Panchayats (local self-governments) in that State. It is constituted under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution by the Governor of each state. It makes recommendations regarding the distribution of financial resources between the State Government and the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), including the principles for:

1. Determining taxes, duties, tolls, and fees to be assigned or appropriated by Panchayats.

2. Grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the state’s consolidated fund.

3. Measures to improve the financial position of Panchayats.

Explanation

A fiscal stimulus refers to government measures aimed at boosting economic activity during periods of recession or economic downturn. These measures typically involve either increasing government spending, reducing taxes, or both, to enhance aggregate demand and mitigate the effects of a recession.

Statement 1 is correct: Reducing tax rates increases disposable income for individuals and businesses, encouraging higher consumption and investment. This surge in spending can stimulate economic activity.

Statement 2 is correct: Increasing government expenditures directly injects money into the economy, leading to increased demand for goods and services. This can result in job creation and heightened economic output.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Abolishing subsidies can lead to higher prices for certain goods and services, potentially reducing consumer spending. During a recession, this could further suppress demand, counteracting stimulative efforts.