Previous Year UPSC Questions

Explanation

The Quit India Movement was one of the largest anti-colonial movements. It started on August 8, 1942, under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. The immediate causes were the failure of Cripps mission, hardships caused during World War II and the Japanese knocking at the doors of Indian borders. Even before the movement could formally be launched all major leaders of congress were put behind the bars by the British. In this situation various secret and underground activities under the leadership to younger congress leaders kept the movement going. In this environment, Usha Mehta, a young congress leader started an underground Radio to give fuel to the movement.

Explanation

Artificial satellites are launched into orbit for a variety of purposes, including communications, navigation, Earth imaging, weather observation, and scientific study. In satellites, humans typically experience a sense of weightlessness because the net force acting on our body is practically zero. This is due to the satellite’s centrifugal force, which cancels out the size of the earth’s gravitational pull. On the other hand, the earth’s gravitational pull is required for the satellite to continuously change its direction, giving acceleration for the satellite’s direction-changing process.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Asteroids are primarily composed of rock and metal and are remnants from the early solar system. In contrast, Comets are made of ice, dust, and rocky material and originate from the Kuiper Belt or Oort Cloud.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Asteroids are predominantly located in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. Comets originate from distant regions of the solar system: short-period comets come from the Kuiper Belt beyond Neptune, and long-period comets originate from the distant Oort Cloud. They are not typically found between Venus and Mercury.

Statement 3 is correct: As comets approach the Sun, the heat causes their icy components to sublimate, forming a glowing coma and often a visible tail that points away from the Sun due to solar wind. Asteroids, being rocky and lacking volatile materials, do not exhibit such features.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Geostationary Orbit is a type of geosynchronous orbit. The earth rotates in the same direction that satellites do. It lasts for roughly 24 hours and holds its place in relation to the earth.

Statement 2 is correct: The orbit must be nearly circular, ensuring that the satellite’s distance from Earth remains constant throughout its revolution. An elliptical orbit would cause the satellite to move closer and farther from Earth, disrupting its stationary position.

Statement 3 is correct: A Geostationary Orbit (GEO) is a special case of a Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO) where the satellite orbits exactly in the Earth’s equatorial plane (0° inclination). This ensures that the satellite appears fixed over a specific point on Earth.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Geostationary orbit is at an altitude of around 35,786 km.

Explanation

Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) encompasses those Government companies in which the direct holding of the Central Government is 51 per cent or more and subsidiaries of such Government companies. The Statutory Corporations set up under Statutes enacted by the Parliament and other companies owned or controlled, directly or indirectly by the Central Government are also categorized as CPSEs.

Statement 1 is incorrect: External debt is the portion of a country’s debt that is borrowed from foreign lenders, including commercial banks, governments, or international financial institutions. The primary objectives of disinvestment in CPSEs are to raise resources for development, reduce fiscal deficits, and promote wider ownership of CPSEs through public participation rather than repaying external debt.

Statement 2 is incorrect: In many cases, the government retains management control by holding a majority stake (more than 50%) even after partial disinvestment. However, in strategic disinvestments, management control may be transferred to private entities. Disinvestment policy is often categorized into strategic disinvestment (selling a majority stake with management control) and minority stake sales. Air India’s strategic disinvestment in 2021 is a notable instance where management control was fully transferred.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Brent crude is a major classification of oil and a key global benchmark for crude oil pricing, widely traded and followed for its significant market influence. Its importance comes from its quality, availability, and location, making it easily transportable to European refineries.

Statement 2 is correct: Brent crude is primarily sourced from the North Sea, specifically the Brent oil field. This region is a major oil producer, and its origin influences the characteristics and market value of Brent crude. While the specific blend of crude oils that make up Brent crude may vary slightly over time, its North Sea origin remains a defining characteristic.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While considered "sweet crude" for its relatively low sulfur content, Brent crude still contains some sulfur. "Sweet" indicates less sulfur compared to "sour" crudes, making it more desirable due to lower refining costs. Sulfur content is an important factor in crude oil pricing because higher sulfur content generally requires more complex and expensive refining processes to meet environmental regulations.

Explanation

The Mega Food Park Scheme, launched in 2008-09, aims to significantly enhance the food processing industry by increasing value and reducing food waste throughout the supply chain, particularly for perishable goods. This initiative is over-seen by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries. The scheme is executed by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), a corporate entity registered under the Companies Act, 2013. Based on a "Cluster" approach, the scheme focuses on developing advanced support infrastructure in specific agricultural or horticultural zones. This infrastructure is designed to enable the establishment of modern food processing units on industrial plots within the park, supported by a well-established supply chain.

Statement 1 is correct: Through a cluster-based approach, mega food parks build cutting-edge infrastructure facilities for food processing along the value chain from farm to market with strong forward and backward connections.

Statement 2 is correct: The Scheme is aimed at providing a method for connecting agricultural production to the market by bringing together producers, processors, and retailers in order to maximise value addition, focused processing of perishable items, reduce wastage, boost farmers’ incomes, and create jobs, particularly in the rural sector.

Statement 3 is incorrect: A Mega Food Park normally includes cold chain, collection centres, primary processing centres, central processing centres, and about 25 to 30 fully completed plots for entrepreneurs to build food processing units. While the entrepreneurs are supported to establish food processing units, providing emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies is not an stated objective of promoting Mega Food Parks.

Explanation

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) legally guarantees that adult members of all rural households can apply for work, ensuring inclusivity without discrimination based on caste, creed, gender, or socioeconomic status. Despite the broad eligibility, MGNREGA often prioritizes Below Poverty Line (BPL) households in practice, reflecting its primary goal of poverty alleviation and providing livelihood security to the most vulnerable rural communities. MGNREGA recognises the right to work as a fundamental entitlement for all rural residents, aimed at improving livelihoods and empowering communities, even if implementation targets certain groups for effectiveness.

Explanation

The crop suitable to be grown in the lower Gangetic plain, which is characterized by a humid climate with high temperature throughout the year, is Paddy and Jute. Paddy: It grows well in the plains of north and north-eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions, where there is an abundance of alluvial clayey soil. A high temperature (above 25°C) and significant humidity are necessary for this kharif crop. Jute: Its cultivation is mainly concentrated in eastern India because of the rich alluvial soil of Ganga-Brahmaputra delta. Jute crops need humid conditions with temperature swings between 24 and 38 degrees Celsius.

Explanation

The Indian Forest Act, 1927 This Act provides the legal framework for the management and protection of forests in In-dia. By regulating the use of forest resources, it directly contributes to the conservation of biodiversity within forest ecosystems. In order to increase accountability for forest protection, this act lays out the steps that must be taken when designating a region as a Reserved Forest, Protected Forest, or Village Forest. Import and Ex-port (Control) Act, 1947 This Act regulates the import and export of goods, including wildlife and plant species. By controlling trade, it helps prevent the exploitation and illegal trafficking of endangered species, thereby contributing to biodiversity conservation. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act 1957 Mining activities, whether occurring within or near Protected Areas, cause a range of environmental consequences that can be severe and irreversible. Thus mining is restricted in reserved areas. Customs Act, 1962 Import and export of GMOs or exotic species are strictly regulated whereas certain medicinal plants are subjected to high customs duties to regulate their trade.