Previous Year UPSC Questions

Explanation

The crops which are predominantly rainfed in India are Groundnut, Sesamum and Pearl millets. Groundnut is a drought-tolerant crop that requires moderate rainfall for its growth and development. Rainfall for cultivation - 500 to 600 mm per annum, distributed rainfall pattern throughout the growing season. Groundnut can withstand a dry spell of 15-20 days during its vegetative stage, but it requires adequate moisture during the flowering and pod formation stages. Sesamum requires temperature is 25°C to 30°C, can tolerate up to 40°C, sensitive to frost required rainfall is 500-600 mm, its drought-tolerant, excessive rainfall during flowering can cause lower yields. It requires well-drained Soil type, rich in organic matter, pH range of 5.5 to 8.0. Pearl millet is a hardy crop that can grow in semi-arid regions. The ideal rainfall for pearl millet cultivation is between 400 to 600 mm per annum, with a well-distributed rainfall pattern throughout the growing season. Pearl millet can tolerate drought conditions and requires moisture during the early growth stages, especially during germination and tillering. Rainfed agriculture is carried out in a wide range of soil types, agro-climatic conditions, and annual rainfall ranges from 400 mm to 1600 mm. Rainfed areas account for percent of millet production, 88 percent of pulses, 73 percent of cotton, 69 percent of oilseeds including groundnut and Sesame.

Explanation

As per the Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President, who also appoints other ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. A person who is not a member of the Parliament/State legislature can be appointed as PM/CM for six months, within which time, he should be elected to the Parliament/State legislature as per Supreme Court judgments.

Explanation

National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010 aims at efficient & quick resolution of environmental disputes (within 6 months of appeal) in order to lessen the burden of litigation in the higher courts. The Act established National-Green Tribunal with jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment. Tribunal is guided by principles of natural justice & its order is executable as a decree of a civil court. Although the NGT’s orders are final, they may be contested in the SC within 90 days.

Statement 1 is correct: The NGT Act is grounded in the fundamental right to a clean and healthy environment, which is integral to the Right to Life under Article 21. Landmark judgments, such as Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991) and M.C. Mehta cases, have expanded the interpretation of Article 21 to include environmental protection. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: Provisions mentioned in statements 2 and 3 have no bearing upon National-Green Tribunal:

Article 275(1) of the Constitution of India guarantees grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of India each year for promoting the welfare of Scheduled Tribes. Infrastructure development schemes like protected drinking water, road connectivity, electricity and housing are provided under this scheme. 243A provides that a Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide.

Explanation

The Demographic Transition Model (DTM) describes the shift in population growth patterns as an economy develops. India is currently in Stage 3, moving towards a stabilized population with lower fertility rates. Stage 1 (High Birth Rate & High Death Rate): This occurs in pre-industrial societies, where disease, famine, and poor healthcare keep both birth and death rates high. Stage 2 (High Birth Rate & Low Death Rate): With better healthcare and sanitation, mortality declines while fertility remains high, leading to rapid population growth. Stage 3 (Low Birth Rate & Low Death Rate): As urbanization, education, and family planning improve, birth rates decline, stabilizing population growth.

Explanation

Adjournment Motion is one of the devices of Parliamentary proceedings. The purpose of an Adjournment Motion is to raise an issue of urgent public importance that requires immediate discussion in the Parliament. It is typically used to bring up issues related to national or regional significance, like natural disasters, economic crises, or controversial government actions. The motion requires the approval of the Speaker or Chairman, and if allowed, the matter is debated in the House. It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 80 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha consists of members nominated members (not more than 12) and representatives of States (indirectly elected by legislative councils of states) and Union Territories (to be chosen in such manner as parliament may prescribe by law). U.T of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry have representation in Rajya sabha who are chosen through indirect election by their respective legislative assemblies.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) does not have the authority to adjudicate election disputes. While the ECI supervises elections, disputes are handled by Election Tribunals or High Courts. The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to adjudicate such matters. Election Petitions under Part III of the Presidential and Vice Presidential Elections Act, 1952 are also filed directly in the Supreme Court. Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures lie within the original jurisdiction of High Courts.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the President of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. Article 93 to 97 of the Constitution of India deals with the provisions of the Presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha. There is no role of the President in removing the Speaker. Hence, The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. It should be noted here that, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets.

Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Article 93 of the Constitution, the Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of their election. The condition to become a member within six months applies to ministers under Article 75(5), not to the Speaker.

Statement 3 is correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has to vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases:

If he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha; If he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; and If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all, then members of the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice.

Explanation

The Rajya Sabha has been given four exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha:

It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List (Article 249). It can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states (Article 312). Resolution for the removal of the vice-president can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha not in the Lok Sabha (Article 67). A proclamation for declaring a national emergency, President’s rule, or a financial emergency (under Articles 352, 356, and 360) can remain in effect even if it is approved only by the Rajya Sabha in case the Lok Sabha is dissolved before or during the emergency period.

Explanation

Provision of Joint sitting of two houses of parliament is given under Article 108. It is an extraordinary mechanism to break a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill. The president can summon joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill.It is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of the Houses. The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting. In their absence, the Deputy Speaker takes charge, followed by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. If none are available, members present elect a presiding officer.

Explanation

The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in partnership with the Election Commission of India. Composition: Generally, the Delimitation Commission comprises a serving or retired Supreme Court judge as the Chairperson, an Election Commissioner nominated by the Chief Election Commissioner, and the State Election Commissioners of the respective states. Objective: To determine the number and boundaries of constituencies, to identify seats reserved for SC/ST. Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times: 1952, 1963, 1973 and

2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.

Statement 1 is correct: The act of Delimitation is redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and Assembly constituencies to represent changes in population and done on the basis of the preceding Census. Its objective is to ensure that all population groups are fairly represented, with equitable geographic distribution so that no political party benefits. A Delimitation Commission is in charge of carrying out this exercise, and its decisions are binding and cannot be challenged in court. However, in Kishorchandra Chhanganlal Rathod case SC held that constitutional courts have the power to review orders of the Delimitation Commission

Statement 2 is correct: When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.