3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1041–1050 of 3238 questions
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UPSC 2015Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q1041. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of the Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament. 2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India. 3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The budget is prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs. The Budget Division under Department of Economic Affairs is responsible for the preparation and submission to Parliament of the Central Governments Budget other than Railways, as well as the supplementary Demands for Grants and Demands for Excess Grants. The Department of Revenue plays a key role in managing In-dia’s financial resources by overseeing tax collection and enforcing economic laws. It is responsible for collecting both direct taxes (such as income tax and wealth tax) and indirect taxes (like GST, customs duty, and excise duty). It does not prepare budget.
Statement 2 is correct: Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266) is a fund to which all receipts are credited and all payments are debited. No money out of this fund can be appropriated (issued or drawn) except in accordance with parliamentary law.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Provident fund deposits, savings bank deposits, remittances etc are credited to the Public Account. The Public Account is operated by the executive action i.e. payment from this account can be made without Parliamentary appropriation.
UPSC 2015Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q1042. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? 1. Slowing economic growth rate 2. Less equitable distribution of national income Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Explanation
A tax-to-GDP ratio is a gauge of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy as measured by gross domestic product (GDP).
Statement 1 is correct: A decrease in the tax-to-GDP ratio may indicate that the government is collecting less tax revenue relative to the size of the economy. This can happen due to slowing economic growth, which reduces corporate profits, incomes, and consumption, leading to lower tax collections. However, this is not always the case, as tax policy changes (like tax cuts) can also reduce the ratio without reflecting economic slowdown.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A decrease in the tax-to-GDP ratio does not necessarily indicate less equitable distribution of na-tional income. While lower tax revenue relative to the size of the economy could result from tax cuts, evasion, or shifts toward in-direct taxes, these factors do not directly determine income in-equality. The impact on equity depends on the structure of the tax system and government policies--if the decline stems from broad-based tax cuts benefiting all income groups, it may not affect income distribution significantly. However, if it results from reduced taxation on the wealthy or increased reliance on regressive indirect taxes, it could exacerbate inequality. Thus, a falling tax-to-GDP ratio alone is not a definitive indicator of less equitable income distribution.
UPSC 2015Environment and Ecology · Miscellaneous
Q1043. With reference to Forest Carbon Partnership Facility, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples. 2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management. 3. It assists the countries in their ’REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is a global partnership that includes governments, businesses, civil society organizations, and indigenous peoples. It was established to support efforts to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The FCPF does not provide financial aid to universities, individual scientists, or institutions for scientific forestry research. Instead, it focuses on providing financial and technical assistance to countries for REDD+ readiness and implementation. The FCPF supports REDD+ efforts through two separate but complementary funds-The FCPF Readiness Fund and The FCPF Carbon Fund.
Statement 3 is correct: The FCPF assists countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing financial and technical assistance. This includes helping countries prepare for REDD+ implementation, develop national strategies, and build capacity for monitoring, reporting, and verification (MRV) of forest carbon emissions.
UPSC 2015Environment and Ecology · Miscellaneous
Q1044. BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the:
Explanation
The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is managed by the World Bank. This initiative aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries, promoting sustainable land-use practices. It seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.
UPSC 2015Polity · State Legislature
Q1045. Consider the following statements: 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State. 2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 171, the maximum strength of the Legislative Council of the state cannot be more than one third of total strength of assembly. However, the size of the Legislative Council cannot be less than 40 members. The constitution has fixed the maximum and minimum limits but actual strength is fixed by Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The members of the Legislative Council are indirectly elected. The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the members from amongst itself.
UPSC 2015Modern History · Prominent Personalities in Modern History
Q1046. Consider the following statements: 1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu. 2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Annie Besant in the 1917 Calcutta Session. Sarojini Naidu became the first Indian woman President of INC in 1925 Kanpur Session.
Statement 2 is correct: Badruddin Tyabji (1844-1906) was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress. He presided over the third session of the INC in 1887 (Madras Session). He was a progressive leader, reformist, and the first Indian to practice law in the Bombay High Court.
UPSC 2015Polity · Local Government: Panchayats and Municipalities
Q1047. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? 1. People’s participation in development 2. Political accountability 3. Democratic decentralisation 4. Financial mobilisation Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The main idea behind the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) is to promote grass root democracy and development. The main aim is to evolve a system of democratic decentralisation and people’s participation with a view to ensure rapid socio-economic progress and provide adequate justice.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Political accountability can be achieved in any system with democratic rule and thus not the fundamental objective of PRIs.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Financial mobilisation was never the fundamental basis for the establishment of PRI.
UPSC 2015Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q1048. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the:
Explanation
The mentioned agreements and terms are related to global trade regulations under the World Trade Organization (WTO):
Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) is a WTO agreement that sets international rules for agricultural trade, subsidies, and market access. It aims to reduce trade barriers and promote fair competition in agriculture. Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Measures: It establishes rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards in global trade. It ensures that countries do not use health measures as a disguised trade barrier. Peace Clause: It was introduced under the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture. It temporarily protected agricultural subsidies from legal challenges under WTO rules. It was a major issue in India’s food security concerns at WTO negotiations.
UPSC 2015Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q1049. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India has not steadily increased over the last decade (2005-2015). Instead, it has experienced fluctuations due to various factors such as global economic conditions, domestic policy changes, and structural reforms. For example: India experienced high GDP growth rates during the mid-2000s (around 9% in 2007-2008). The growth rate declined significantly during the global financial crisis of 2008-2009. Post-2010, growth rates recovered but remained volatile, with a slowdown in recent years due to factors like demonetization (2016) and the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in 2017.
Statement 2 is correct: Gross domestic product at market prices is the sum of added values of all activities which produce goods and services, plus taxes and minus subsidies on products. When measured in nominal terms (i.e., at current market prices without adjusting for inflation), India’s GDP in rupees has shown a consistent upward trend over the past decade. This steady increase reflects the overall expansion of the economy in nominal terms.
UPSC 2015Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q1050. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit? 1. Reducing revenue expenditure 2. Introducing new welfare schemes 3. Rationalising subsidies 4. Expanding industries Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Budget deficit is used to define a status of financial health in which expenditures exceed revenue. Revenue Expenditure is the part of government spending that does not result in the production of assets such as Salaries, wages, pensions, subsidies, and interest payments etc. Reducing Revenue Expenditure involves cutting down on the government’s routine expenses, such as salaries, subsidies, and administrative costs. By streamlining operations and eliminating wasteful spending, the government can lower its revenue expenditure and reduce the budget deficit.
Statement 3 is correct: Rationalizing Subsidies entails reviewing and possibly reducing subsidies that are inefficient or benefit higher-income groups disproportionately. By targeting subsidies more effectively, the government can decrease un-necessary spending, aiding in deficit reduction. Statements 2 and 4 are incorrect:
Introducing New Welfare Schemes without corresponding revenue sources can increase government expenditure, potentially widening the budget deficit. Therefore, this action may not contribute to deficit reduction. Promoting industrial expansion can boost economic growth and over time increase government revenues through higher tax collections. However, the effects of such measures are typically long-term and may not provide immediate relief to a budget deficit.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1041
2015
(c) 2 only
1042
2015
(a) 1 only
1043
2015
(c) 1 and 3 only
1044
2015
(d) World Bank
1045
2015
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1046
2015
(b) 2 only
1047
2015
(c) 1 and 3 only
1048
2015
(c) World Trade Organization
1049
2015
(b) 2 only
1050
2015
(a) 1 and 3 only
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.