3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1011–1020 of 3238 questions
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UPSC 2015Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q1011. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?
Explanation
As a protocol to the Vienna Convention (first inter-national agreement to protect the ozone layer,) Montreal Protocol deals with the substances that deplete the Ozone Layer (ozone-depleting substance-ODS). The Montreal Protocol phases down the consumption and production of the different ODS in a step-wise manner, with different timetables for developed and developing countries (referred to as "Article 5 countries"). The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty de-signed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of numerous substances responsible for ozone depletion. Finalized in 1987, it has been hailed as one of the most successful environmental agreements, achieving universal ratification and significantly reducing the presence of ozone-deplet-ing substances (ODS) in the atmosphere.
UPSC 2015Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q1012. What is the Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?
Explanation
Rio+20 is the short name for the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development which took place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June 2012 i.e. twenty years after the land-mark 1992 Earth Summit in Rio. At the Rio+20 Conference, world leaders, along with thousands of participants from the private sector, NGOs and other groups, came together to shape how we can reduce poverty, advance social equity and ensure environmental protection on an ever more crowded planet. In Rio, Member States agreed to initiate a process to create a set of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) that would build on the Millennium Development Goals and align with the post-2015 development agenda. The conference also endorsed pioneering guidelines for green economy policies. Additionally, governments decided to establish an intergovernmental process under the General Assembly to explore strategies for financing sustainable development.
UPSC 2015Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q1013. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the
Explanation
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). It is responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. The committee is also responsible for the appraisal of proposals relating to the release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials. The committee oversees the use, import, and export of genetically modified organisms and crops, ensuring they comply with environmental safety standards.
UPSC 2015Environment and Ecology · Environmental Organisations
Q1014. With reference to an organisation known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations. 2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organisation. 3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
BirdLife International is a global partnership of conservation organizations dedicated to the protection of birds, their habitats, and global biodiversity. Established in 1922 as the International Council for Bird Preservation, it has evolved into a worldwide network operating in over 100 countries.
Statement 1 is correct: BirdLife International functions as a global alliance of non-governmental organizations focused on bird conservation. Each partner represents a specific coun-try or territory, working collaboratively to achieve shared conservation goals.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The term "biodiversity hotspots" was introduced by British ecologist Norman Myers in 1988 to identify regions with significant levels of biodiversity under threat from human activities. This concept was later adopted and promoted by organizations such as Conservation International. It did not originate from BirdLife International.
Statement 3 is correct: BirdLife International is responsible for identifying and documenting Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs). These sites are recognized for their critical importance to bird conservation and biodiversity. To date, over 13,000 IBAs have been identified worldwide, serving as a foundation for conservation planning and action.
UPSC 2015Environment and Ecology · Environmental Organisations
Q1015. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN) and the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments. 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments. 3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: IUCN is an NGO, founded in October 1948 as the International Union for the Protection of Nature (or IUPN) following an international conference in Fon-tainebleau, France. Later the name was changed to International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN). CITES is an international agreement between governments, aiming to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. The CITES Secretariat is administered by UNEP and is located at Geneva, Switzerland.
Statement 2 is correct: IUCN supports scientific research, manages field projects globally and brings governments, non-government organisations, United Nations agencies, companies and local communities together to develop and implement policy.
Statement 3 is correct: CITES is legally binding on its Parties but it does not replace national legislation. It provides a framework that each Party must implement through its own domestic laws to ensure the Convention’s provisions are enforced at the national level.
UPSC 2015Environment and Ecology · Environmental Organisations
Q1016. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct? 1. It is intended to assist developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Explanation
As the world’s largest climate fund, GCF accelerates transformative climate action in developing countries through a country-owned partnership approach and use of flexible financing solutions and climate investment expertise.
Statement 1 is correct: Green Climate Fund aims to make an ambitious contribution to attaining the mitigation and adaptation goals of the international community to counter climate change. The Fund allocates its resources to low-emission and climate-resilient projects and programmes in developing countries.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The GCF was established in 2010 by 194 countries party to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) as an operating entity of the Convention’s financial mechanism. It is not founded under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), the Asian Development Bank (ADB), or the World Bank.
UPSC 2015Polity · Parliament
Q1017. Consider the following statements: 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 109 of the Constitution of India Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the Money Bill.The Rajya Sabha can keep the Money Bill for a maximum period of 14 days. It should return the bill with or without recommendation to Lok Sabha and after which Lok Sabha may accept or reject recommendation.
Statement 2 is correct: The Demands for Grants (which are the detailed estimates of expenditure) are voted in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to vote on these demands, although it can discuss them. According to Article 113 of the Constitution, only the Lok Sabha has the power to approve or reject the Demands for Grants. No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha enjoys equal status with the Lok Sabha on the matter of discussion of Annual Financial Statement (Article 112). While the Rajya Sabha can discuss the budget, it cannot vote on it or pass it. The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha can either accept or reject. The main power to approve the budget lies with the Lok Sabha.
Exam tip:
For S3, The word "discuss" is the key trap. Ask yourself: "Even if Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on money matters, does that mean it can’t even discuss them?" Clearly No! as it would be extreme, hence likely false.
UPSC 2015Polity · Parliament
Q1018. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by
Explanation
As per Article 108. The President of India can call for a joint sitting if the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha disagree on a bill). In the case of a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, the bill is required to be passed by a simple majority of the members present and voting. It is extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill:-
1. If the bill is rejected by the other House;
2. If the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill; or
3. If more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other House without the bill being passed by it.
Additional insight:
Joint sitting applies only to ordinary and financial bills, not money bills or constitutional amendment bills. If the bill (under dispute) has already lapsed due to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, no joint sitting can be summoned. But, the joint sitting can be held if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the President has notified his intention to summon such a sitting (as the bill does not lapse in this case). The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting. In their absence, the Deputy Speaker takes charge, followed by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. If none are available, members present elect a presiding officer. A joint sitting requires a quorum of one-tenth of the total members of both Houses and is governed by the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha. The Constitution has specified that at a joint sitting, new amendments to the bill cannot be proposed except in two cases:
Those amendments that have caused final disagreement between the Houses; and Those amendments that might have become necessary due to the delay in the passage of the bill. Joint sitting of the two Houses has been invoked only thrice. The bills that have been passed at joint sittings are:
Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1960.
Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977.
Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002.
UPSC 2015International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q1019. Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? 1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees 2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma 3. Tirupathi Laddu Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
A Geographical Indication (GI) tag is granted to products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation linked to that location. Banaras Brocades and Sarees (GI Tag - 2009): Famous for intricate Zari and silk weaving, these sarees are handwoven in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. Tirupati Laddu (GI Tag - 2009): This prasadam from the Tirumala Venkateswara Temple in Andhra Pradesh is known for its unique recipe and religious significance. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma is incorrect: It is a traditional Rajasthani dish but has not been granted a GI tag.
UPSC 2015Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q1020. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements: 1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. 2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. 3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen (H₂) reacts with oxygen (O₂) from the air in an electrochemical reaction. This process generates electricity along with water (H₂O) and heat as by-products. Since no harmful emissions are released, this is considered a clean energy technology.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Fuel cells are highly adaptable and can be designed for various applications, ranging from powering large buildings and vehicles to smaller portable devices such as laptops. Proton Exchange Membrane Fuel Cells (PEMFCs) are particularly suitable for portable devices due to their compact size and efficiency.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Fuel cells generate electricity in the form of Direct Current (DC). However, many applications require Alternating Current (AC) to operate and thus an inverter is typically used to convert the DC produced by the fuel cell into AC.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1011
2015
(b) Montreal Protocol
1012
2015
(a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
1013
2015
(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
1014
2015
(c) 1 and 3 only
1015
2015
(b) 2 and 3 only
1016
2015
(a) 1 only
1017
2015
(b) 1 and 2 only
1018
2015
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
1019
2015
(c) 1 and 3 only
1020
2015
(a) 1 only
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This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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