95 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 21–30 of 95 questions
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UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q21. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule and Article 31-B of the Indian Constitution was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. A law passed by the Parliament and inserted into the Ninth Schedule receives protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is thus exempt from judicial review. However in IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the SC ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The mandate of Ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but according to the Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973, any violation with the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution is open to challenge in court of law. Again in IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the SC ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) after 24 April 1973 would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.
Exam tip:
For S2, it is well known fact that "everything " in India is under judicial review. Remember this! This clearly invalidates S2.
UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q22. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"? 1. Limitation of Powers 2. Equality before law 3. People’s responsibility to the Government 4. Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by A.V.
Dicey. It is a cornerstone of democratic governance, ensuring that everyone, including government officials, is governed by law.
Statement 1, 2 and 4 are correct: The concept of ‘equality before law’ as enshrined in Article 14 of constitution is aligned with "Rule of Law" whose key features include:
Limitation of Powers: Government authority must be constrained by law to prevent misuse of power. Equality Before the Law: All individuals, irrespective of status, are equal before the law. Liberty and Civil Rights: The Rule of Law protects individual freedoms and rights, ensuring the state cannot infringe on them arbitrarily.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The government is responsible/ accountable to the people. While citizens have duties and responsibilities, the Rule of Law primarily focuses on how power is exercised by the government and how citizens are protected under the law.
Exam tip:
What is the logical relationship between rule of law and people’s responsibility? None!, Rule of Law is about government’s accountability to people, not the reverse. Hence S3 is clearly false, eliminates option A and D. For S1, Very basic meaning to "Rule of Law" -- laws restrict arbitrary power. This must be included.
UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q23. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
Explanation
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of life and personal liberty. The Right to Privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, ensuring individuals’ autonomy and protection against unwarranted state interference. It was affirmed as a constitutional right by the Supreme Court in the landmark 2017 Puttaswamy judgment.The right may be restricted only by state action that passes each of the three tests:
Such state action must have a legislative mandate; It must be pursuing a legitimate state purpose; and It must be proportionate.
UPSC 2018Environment and Ecology · Agriculture and Environment
Q24. Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"?
Explanation
Carbon fertilisation is the artificial enrichment of the atmosphere of greenhouses with carbon dioxide, an essential nutrient for plants and vegetables. It also goes by the name of "Carbon Dioxide Fertilization." It can be used to grow nearly any form of vegetable (asparagus, celery, lettuce, tomatoes, aubergines, etc.), greenhouse fruit (strawberries), and ornamental plants, and is especially suited for cold climates.
Option (a) is correct: Carbon fertilisation results in an increase in the instantaneous rate of photosynthesis in C3 plants; and increases the transpiration efficiency of the leaf (C3 and C4 plants). During high concentration of carbon dioxide, plants maintain narrow openings of leaf surface which protects them from water loss. Faster plant growth enhances food production and allows for the sequestration of more carbon dioxide. Plants distribute a greater proportion of photosynthate to roots under high concentrations of atmospheric carbon dioxide. The reproductive biomass growth, as well as vegetative biomass growth, is usually increased by elevated carbon dioxide.
Additional insight:
The term that describes "increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere" is Global Warming. Ocean acidification: It refers to the ongoing decrease in the pH (and thus increasing acidity) of Earth’s oceans due to the absorption of excess carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. The term that describes adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is Climate Adaptation.
UPSC 2018Science and Technology · Diseases
Q25. Consider the following 1. Birds 2. Dust blowing 3. Rain 4. Wind blowing Which of the above spread plant diseases?
Explanation
Birds can act as carriers of plant pathogens. As they move through crops, pathogens may stick to their feathers, beaks, or feet, transferring them from infected plants to healthy ones. Dust particles often carry fungal spores or bacterial cells. When dust is blown by the wind, these pathogens can travel to new areas, causing infections in plants far from the original source. Rainwater, particularly during heavy downpours or storms, can facilitate the spread of pathogens. Raindrops pick up pathogens from infected plants or soil and splash them onto healthy plants, promoting disease transmission. Wind plays a significant role in transporting pathogens such as fungal spores, bacteria, or insect vectors contaminated with viruses. This mechanism allows pathogens to infect plants located far from the initial infection site.
Exam tip:
You can try, The "NOT" approach for all statements, this tests the improbability of negating a statement--if denying its impact seems highly unlikely, the statement is plausibly true. For Example: Birds or Rain or Wind NOT Spread plant diseases. Absurd, unlikely. Hence all original are likely true.
UPSC 2018Environment and Ecology · Agriculture and Environment
Q26. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements: 1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity. 2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle. 3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Soil water holding capacity is the amount of water that a given soil can hold for crop use. Soil texture and organic matter are the key components that determine soil water holding capacity. Organic matter influences the physical conditions of a soil in several ways.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. The sulphur cycle describes the movement of sulphur through the atmosphere, mineral and organic forms, and through living things.
Statement 3 is correct: Salinization is a major problem associated with irrigation, because deposits of salts build up in the soil and can reach levels that are harmful to crops.
Exam tip:
S1 and S2 contain extreme phrases like "Drastically reduces" and "any role", hence more probable to be false, instead, S3 contains "some" hence plausible to be true. "Some" = possibility logic, not absolute. If even one species of organism does something, the statement is likely correct.
UPSC 2018Environment and Ecology · Agriculture and Environment
Q27. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture? 1. Avoiding the monoculture practices 2. Adopting minimum tillage 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops 4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a farming system that promotes minimum soil disturbance (i.e. no tillage), maintenance of a permanent soil cover, and diversification of plant species. It enhances biodiversity and natural biological processes above and below the ground surface, which contribute to increased water and nutrient use efficiency and to improved and sustained crop production. According to FAO’s website there are three principles of Conservation of Agriculture:
1. Minimum mechanical soil disturbance: It refers to low disturbance no-tillage and direct seeding. The disturbed area must be less than 15 cm wide or less than 25% of the cropped area (whichever is lower).
2. Permanent soil organic cover: Three categories are distinguished: 30-60%, >60-90% and >90% ground cover, measured immediately after the direct seeding operation. An area with less than 30% cover is not considered as CA.
3. Species diversification: Rotation/association should involve at least 3 different crop species. The rotation of crops is not only necessary to offer a diverse "diet" to the soil micro organisms, but as they root at different soil depths, they are capable of exploring different soil layers for nutrients.
UPSC 2018Art and Culture · Buddhism and Jainism
Q28. Which reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect belongs to
Explanation
Sthanakvasi is a branch of Svetambara Jainism that was started in 1653 AD by a merchant named Lavaji. It holds that the path to soul purification and achieving Nirvana/Moksha does not include idol worship.
Option (b) is correct:
The Sthanakvasi sect is a reformist sect within Jainism. It emerged in the 15th century CE as a reaction against the perceived ritualism and temple-centric practices of the Murtipujaka (idol-worshipping) Jains.mThe Sthanakvasis emphasize asceticism, non-violence (ahimsa), and meditation. They reject the worship of idols and instead focus on spiritual practices and the study of Jain scriptures.mThe sect derives its name from the term "Sthanak", meaning a place of worship, which is typically a simple hall rather than an ornate temple.
UPSC 2018Art and Culture · Buddhism and Jainism
Q29. Which reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?
Explanation
A Bodhisattva in Buddhism is an enlightened being who, out of compassion, chooses to remain in the cycle of birth and death (samsara) to help all sentient beings attain liberation. The Bodhisattva path emphasizes the cultivation of perfections (paramitas) like generosity, wisdom, and patience to achieve Buddhahood. According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a Bodhisattva who will appear on earth in future, attain enlightenment and teach pure dharma. He will be the future Buddha. Avalokiteshvara (The Lord Who Looks Down), also called Padmapani (The Lotus-Bearer) and Lokesvara in Sanskrit (The Lord of the World) is believed to hear the cries of suffering beings and assist in their liberation, offering help and comfort. The Bodhisattva is often depicted with multiple arms, symbolizing the ability to reach out and help countless beings simultaneously.
UPSC 2018Geography · Oceanography
Q30. Consider the following statements: 1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters. 2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines. 3. Coral reefs host far more animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Coral reefs predominantly thrive in warm, shallow waters, typically between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn (30°N to 30°S latitude). These tropical regions provide the ideal conditions--such as appropriate temperature, light, and salinity--for coral growth. The warm water temperatures are essential for the symbiotic relationship between coral polyps and the algae (zooxanthellae) that live within their tissues.
Statement 2 is correct: The Great Barrier Reef in Australia, along with coral reef systems in Indonesia and the Philippines (part of the Coral Triangle), collectively account for more than one-third of the world’s coral reefs. These regions are globally renowned for their extensive and diverse coral systems.
Statement 3 is correct: Coral reefs are among the most bio-diverse ecosystems on Earth, hosting over 25,000 described species from 32 of the 33 known animal phyla, which is more than the number of animal phyla found in tropical rainforests.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
21
2018
(a) 1 only
22
2018
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
23
2018
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
24
2018
(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
25
2018
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
26
2018
(b) 3 only
27
2018
(c) 2, 4 and 5
28
2018
(b) Jainism
29
2018
(c) Maitreya
30
2018
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 95 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.