This page lists 95 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Explanations state facts as they stood in the year each question was asked, so words like “recently” or “currently” refer to that year, not today. For the present position, check the latest Current Affairs.
Showing 11–20 of 95 questions
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q11. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?
Explanation
The Additional Protocol (AP) is a legal agreement between a country and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) that strengthens the IAEA’s ability to verify that nuclear materials are not being diverted for non-peaceful purposes. It expands the IAEA’s access to nuclear facilities and provides additional transparency measures. India signed the Additional Protocol with the IAEA in 2009, and it came into force in 2014.
Option (a) is correct: The Additional Protocol strengthens IAEA oversight over India’s civilian nuclear reactors, ensuring non-diversion of nuclear material for military purposes. India voluntarily placed 14 civilian reactors under IAEA safeguards as part of the Indo-US Nuclear Deal (2008).
Option (b) is incorrect: India’s military nuclear installations are not subject to IAEA safeguards as India is not a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
Option (c) is incorrect: While ratifying the protocol demonstrates India’s commitment to non-proliferation but it does not directly grant the privilege to buy uranium from NSG countries. However, it played a role in securing an NSG waiver in 2008 which allowed India to access nuclear technology and materials despite not being an NPT signatory
Option (d) is incorrect: Ratifying the Additional Protocol does not automatically make India a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). NSG membership requires a consensus among all member states, and India’s membership has faced opposition due to its non-signatory status to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
Additional insight:
The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), established in 1957 and headquartered in Vienna, Austria, is an independent organization within the UN system. It promotes the safe, secure, and peaceful use of nuclear energy while preventing its misuse for military purposes. The IAEA focuses on three main areas:
Nuclear safety and security Science and technology Safeguards and verification It assists member states with nuclear research, ensures pro-motion of Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), and fosters international cooperation. The agency was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2005 for its efforts in promoting nuclear safety and non-proliferation.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q12. International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to:
Explanation
The International Labour Organization (ILO) has two key conventions focused on child labour:
ILO Convention 138 (Minimum Age Convention, 1973) focuses on the abolition of child labour by setting a minimum age for employment or work, which should not be less than the age of completion of compulsory schooling and, in any case, for most of the countries, not less than 15 years. It aims to ensure that children are not employed in work that jeopardizes their health, safety, or morals. ILO Convention 182 (Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999) aims to eliminate the worst forms of child labour, including slavery, trafficking, debt bondage, forced labour, and hazardous work. It is recognized as one of the core ILO conventions, widely ratified by countries worldwide.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q13. The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
Explanation
Option (b) is correct: The Israel-Palestine conflict is the primary context where the "two-state solution" is discussed. The "two-state solution" refers to the proposal for resolving the Israel-Palestine conflict by creating two independent states:
Israel as a Jewish state.
Palestine as a separate sovereign state, comprising the West Bank and Gaza Strip. The two-state solution is widely supported by the United Nations, USA, and European Union as a way to bring peace to the region. However, territorial disputes, Israeli settlements in the West Bank, and political disagreements have hindered its implementation. Options (a) (c), and (d) are incorrect:
China has territorial disputes (e.g., Taiwan, Tibet, South China Sea), but the "two-state solution" is not related to China. Iraq has internal conflicts (e.g., Sunni-Shia tensions, Kurdish independence), but not a two-state issue. Yemen is dealing with a civil war, not a two-state conflict.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q14. Consider the following statements: 1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years. 2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
India holds a significant position in the global oilseeds industry, contributing about 10% to the world’s total production. However, the demand for edible oils (including those derived from oilseeds, aside from palm oil) greatly exceeds domestic production, resulting in a reliance on imports for nearly 60% of the required supply.
Statement 1 is correct: With respect to the year 2018, Over the past five years, India’s edible oil imports have consistently surpassed domestic production, highlighting a significant dependence on foreign sources to meet consumption needs. This rising trend in imports persisted through 2023-24, reaching approximately 15.96 MMT. Meanwhile, domestic production has remained largely stagnant, accounting for only about 40% of the country’s total edible oil consumption. This imbalance highlights the widening gap between supply and demand, making large-scale imports essential to meet national requirements.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian government may impose customs duties on imported edible oils, adjusting rates to balance consumer interests and support domestic farmers. For instance, effective from September 14, 2024, a 20% basic customs duty was imposed on crude palm oil, crude soybean oil, and crude sunflower oil to support local oilseed farmers.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q15. "Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following?
Explanation
The "Rule of Law Index" is an annual report published by the World Justice Project (WJP). It evaluates countries based on their adherence to the rule of law using factors such as:
Constraints on government powers Absence of corruption Open government Fundamental rights Order and security Regulatory enforcement Civil and criminal justice The index ranks countries based on data collected from experts and surveys to assess how well nations uphold legal principles. The index is widely used by governments, policymakers, and civil society organizations to identify strengths and weaknesses in the rule of law and to guide reforms.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q16. Consider the following: 1. Areca nut 2. Barley 3. Coffee 4. Finger millet 5. Groundnut 6. Sesamum 7. Turmeric The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
Explanation
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a government-set price for crops. It helps prevent distress sales when market prices fall below this level. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) makes recommendations on MSP. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) announces the MSP based on these recommendations. MSP ensures that farmers receive a fair income.
Option (b) is correct: The government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane. Amongst the above, Barley, Finger millet, Groundnut, Sesamum are part of MSP crop list. Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect: Areca nut, coffee, and turmeric being commercial crops, are typically not covered under MSP.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q17. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’? 1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. 2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)". Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: NSG members can engage in nuclear trade and obtain access to advanced nuclear technology and materials. This includes technologies for peaceful uses such as medicine, energy production, and research. India seeks NSG membership to improve its access to civilian nuclear technology and fuel for energy generation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: NSG membership does not automatically grant NPT membership. Adherence to NPT principles is often considered during NSG membership discussions but signing the NPT is not a mandatory requirement for joining the NSG. For instance, India seeks NSG membership without being an NPT signatory. China has blocked India’s entry into NSG by citing India’s non-signatory status in NPT.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q18. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
Explanation
Yemen and South Sudan have experienced severe humanitarian crises in recent years, with millions of people suffering from famine, acute malnutrition, and starvation, primarily caused by ongoing wars and ethnic conflicts. Yemen has been experiencing one of the world’s worst humanitarian crises due to a prolonged conflict since 2015. The war, combined with a blockade, has led to widespread famine-like conditions, with millions of people suffering from acute malnutrition and starvation. Over 80% of the population requires humanitarian aid, and millions are at risk of famine. Since its civil war began in 2013, South Sudan has faced severe food insecurity and famine conditions. Conflict has displaced millions, disrupted agricultural activities, and caused widespread hunger. In 2017, a famine was officially declared in parts of South Sudan, and even now, half the population faces extreme hunger.
UPSC 2018Modern History · Indian National Movement I (1905-1918)
Q19. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
Explanation
Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was undertaken after Mahatma Gandhi learned about the abuses suffered by farmers, who were forced into growing indigo by British planters and estate owners. Under the Tinkathia system in Champaran, tenants were forced to grow indigo on 3/20th of their land for landlords. European planters imposed high rents and illegal fees, sparking passive resistance. This marked the beginning of Gandhian methods and the involvement of peasants in the Indian National Movement.
UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q20. Consider the following statements: 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) lays down the minimum qualifications for teachers, not the State Councils of Teacher Education.
Statement 2 is correct: The Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) is conducted as per NCTE guidelines and is a mandatory requirement for teaching primary classes in government and private schools.
Statement 3 is incorrect: More than 90% of teacher education institutions are privately managed, and only a small percentage are directly run by State Governments.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
11
2018
(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
12
2018
(a) Child labour
13
2018
(b) Israel
14
2018
(a) 1 only
15
2018
(d) World Justice Project
16
2018
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
17
2018
(a) 1 only
18
2018
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
19
2018
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
20
2018
(b) 2 only
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 95 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims, asked between 1995 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims are available for 30 years, from 1995 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.