This page lists 95 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on the UPSC 2014 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Explanations state facts as they stood in the year each question was asked, so words like “recently” or “currently” refer to that year, not today. For the present position, check the latest Current Affairs.
Showing 51–60 of 95 questions
UPSC 2014Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q51. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Explanation
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle environmental issues. It is a multilateral family of funds dedicated to confronting biodiversity loss, climate change, and pollution, and supporting land and ocean health. Its financing enables developing countries to address complex challenges and work towards international environmental goals. The partnership includes 186 member governments as well as civil society, Indigenous Peoples, women, and youth, with a focus on integration and inclusivity. The GEF serves as a "financial mechanism" to six conventions:
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) Minamata Convention on Mercury Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement.
UPSC 2014Environment and Ecology · Environmental Organisations
Q52. Consider the following statements: 1. Animal Welfare Board of India was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body. 3. The National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Animal Welfare Board of In-dia was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. It serves as a statutory advisory body on animal welfare laws and promotes animal welfare in the country.
Statement 2 is correct: The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body. It was constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006. It aims to strengthen tiger conservation initiatives by providing a statutory basis for the protection of tiger reserves and ensuring accountability in the management of these reserves.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) was established in 2009 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes Union Ministers and Chief Ministers of states through which the Ganga flows. It is in charge of overseeing the restoration of the River Ganga Basin, including Ganga and its tributaries, and the prevention of pollution.
UPSC 2014Environment and Ecology · Environmental Organisations
Q53. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements: 1. It is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. 2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness. 3. It organises and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
BNHS is one of the biggest non-governmental groups working on biodiversity and conservation. It was established in 1883. It has its headquarters in Mumbai’s Hornbill House. BNHS funds numerous research projects, and it also puts out the Bombay Natural History Society Journal. The Great Hornbill serves as the BNHS’s emblem.
Statement 1 is incorrect: BNHS is an independent non-gov-ernmental organization (NGO) and is not an autonomous body under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. While it collaborates with various governmental agencies, it operates independently.
Statement 2 is correct: BNHS’s mission focuses on the conservation of nature, primarily biological diversity, through action based on research, education, and public awareness. It has been instrumental in various conservation initiatives, including the protection of endangered species and habitats across India. Its research has significantly contributed to policy formulation and implementation in the field of wildlife conservation.
Statement 3 is correct: By organizing nature trails, camps, and workshops, BNHS provides platforms for individuals to experience and learn about biodiversity firsthand, fostering a community of informed and motivated conservationists.
UPSC 2014Polity · Parliament
Q54. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India: 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India. 2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the No-Confidence Motion. The Constitution provides the framework for parliamentary procedures but leaves the details of the procedures, including the No-Confidence Motion, to the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha. The motion of No Confidence is a part of parliamentary practice that allows the Lok Sabha to hold the government accountable by voting whether or not they have confidence in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
Statement 2 is correct: A No-Confidence Motion can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (the Lower House of Parliament). According to the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha, the motion requires the support of at least 50 members to be introduced. The Rajya Sabha (the Upper House) does not have the provision to introduce a No-Confidence Motion against the government. A No-Confidence Motion is a tool used to test the majority support for the government.
Additional insight:
No-Confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. It can be moved against the entire council of ministers only. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign from office. The First no-confidence motion was moved during the third Lok Sabha in 1963 when Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister. Lok Sabha’s Rule 198 mentions the procedure for a motion of no-confidence. So a no-confidence motion can only be passed in Lok Sabha as Rule 198 allows any member of the House to give a written notice. In case there are 50 MPs in favour, a date for discussing the motion is assigned. If at all during the debate and the eventual vote, which has to take place within 10 days of the notice, majority of the members vote in favour of the motion then the motion is passed and the government in power has to vacate the office. According to most parliamentary procedures, a minimum of six months should pass between the introduction of two no-confidence motions.
UPSC 2014Polity · Parliament
Q55. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
Explanation
The Estimates Committee was set up in 1950, on the recommendation of John Mathai. It consists of 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha and it is the largest committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The minister cannot be the members of the estimates committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party. Its function is to examine the budget and also suggest economies of public expenditure. It also suggests an alternative policy of bringing policy of economies.
UPSC 2014Polity · Parliament
Q56. Which of the following is/are the function/ functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings 2. Secretariat assistance to Cabinet Committees 3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: A cabinet secretary is appointed for a fixed period of time, usually two years. A Cabinet Secretary holds the responsibility of preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings.
Statement 2 is correct: The Prime Minister has direct control over the cabinet secretariat. The Cabinet Secretary is the administrative head of the secretariat. It also gives secretariat assistance to the Cabinet Committees.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Cabinet Secretariat facilitates government decision-making by providing interministerial coordination. However, the Ministry of Finance is entrusted with the allocation of financial resources to the Ministries.
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q57. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
Explanation
Option (b) is correct: Cluster bean commonly known as guar has traditionally been utilized in India as a vegetable and animal feed. Guar gum is widely used in the oil and gas industry particularly in hydraulic fracturing (fracking) for shale gas extraction. It acts as a thickening agent in fracking fluids, helping to carry proppants (like sand) into fractures in the shale rock to keep them open and allow gas to flow. India is one of the largest producers of guar in the world and the demand for guar gum surged due to its use in shale gas extraction especially in the United States.
Option (a),(c) and (d) are incorrect:
Guar seeds are primarily known for their gum content and not oil. It has applications in various industries (food, pharmaceuticals, textiles, etc.) but there is no widespread use of guar seed oil in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics. Traditionally guar leaves have been consumed as a vegetable but their medicinal properties particularly as antihistamines is not well-documented. Guar seeds are not a significant source of biodiesel. It is not commercially significant or widely recognized as a high-quality biodiesel source.
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q58. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a surface-to-surface missile. 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
The Agni-IV is an intermediate-range ballistic missile developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
Statement 1 is correct: The Agni-IV is designed as a surface-to-surface missile, capable of being launched from the ground to strike terrestrial targets. It enhances India’s strategic strike capabilities. Statements 2 is incorrect: The Agni-IV utilizes a two-stage solid propellant system, not liquid propellant. Solid propellants offer advantages such as easier handling and longer storage life, which are beneficial for ballistic missiles. Statements 3 is incorrect: The Agni-IV has a range of around 4,000 km and is capable of carrying a payload of up to one tonne, including nuclear warheads. A range of 7,500 km would classify the missile as an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), but the Agni-IV is categorized as an intermediate-range ballistic missile (IRBM).
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q59. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
Explanation
Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and certain bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy, producing glucose and releasing oxygen. The functions of the chlorophyll, a green pigment, are related to the transformation of inefficient solar energy into useful chemical energy. During photosynthesis, plants capture light energy (free energy) and convert it into chemical energy, storing it as potential energy in the bonds of glucose molecules. This stored energy can later be used by the plant for various metabolic processes. 6H O + 6CO C H O + 6O
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q60. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants? 1. Vegetative propagation produces a clonal population. 2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus. 3. Vegetative propagation can be practised most of the year. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Vegetative propagation is a fascinating form of asexual reproduction where new plants grow from specialized vegetative parts like stems, roots, or leaves rather than seeds.
Statement 1 is correct: Vegetative propagation is a process in which new plants are grown from the vegetative parts of the parent plant. As this method does not involve sexual reproduction, the offspring are genetically identical to the parent, creating a clonal population. This technique ensures uniformity among the progeny, making it particularly useful for preserving desirable traits in cultivated plants.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Standard methods of vegetative propagation generally do not eliminate viruses rather they often perpetuate viral infections because the new plants are exact genetic clones of the infected parent plant.
Statement 3 is correct: Unlike seed-based propagation, which is often dependent on specific seasons, methods like cuttings, layering, or tissue culture can be carried out continuously as long as the required conditions and resources are provided. Vegetative propagation can typically be practiced year-round, particularly in controlled environmental settings. This adaptability enables the consistent production of new plants.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
51
2014
(a) It serves as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’.
52
2014
(b) 2 and 3 only
53
2014
(c) 2 and 3 only
54
2014
(c) Both 1 and 2
55
2014
(b) The committee on Estimates
56
2014
(c) 1 and 2 only
57
2014
(b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas
58
2014
(a) 1 only
59
2014
(b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored.
60
2014
(c) 1 and 3 only
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 95 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2014 Prelims, asked between 1995 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2014 Prelims are available for 30 years, from 1995 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.