96 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2014 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 61–70 of 96 questions
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UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q61. Consider the following techniques/phenomena: 1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility 3. Gene silencing Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?
Explanation
Transgenic crops are developed by introducing foreign genes into a plant’s genome to confer new traits, such as pest resistance or improved nutritional content.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Budding and grafting are traditional horticultural techniques used to propagate plants. In grafting, tissues from one plant are inserted into those of another so that the two sets of vascular tissues may join together. These methods do not alter the genetic makeup of the plants.
Statement 2 is correct: Cytoplasmic male sterility (CMS) refers to the complete or partial inability of plants to produce functional male gametes. Male Sterility prevents the plant from producing viable pollen, thereby rendering it incapable of self-fertilization. CMS systems are extensively used in hybrid crop production because they simplify the process of controlling male sterility, eliminating the need for manual emasculation during cross-breeding. This enhances efficiency and consistency in hybrid seed production.
Statement 3 is correct: Gene silencing refers to techniques used to suppress the expression of specific genes within an organism. In the context of transgenic crops, methods such as RNA interference (RNAi) are employed to downregulate or silence target genes, thereby conferring desired traits like pest resistance or delayed fruit ripening. One notable example of gene silencing in India is the development of Bt Cotton using RNA interference (RNAi). In Bt cotton, a gene from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is introduced to produce proteins that are toxic to cotton bollworm pest.
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q62. Consider the following statements: 1. Maize can be used for the production of starch. 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel. 3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Maize is a primary source for commercial starch production. Through a wet milling process, maize kernels are separated into components such as starch, oil, protein, and fiber. The extracted starch is utilized in multiple industries, including food, paper, and textiles.
Statement 2 is correct: Maize oil, also known as corn oil, can be used as a raw material for biodiesel production. Through a chemical process called transesterification, the oil reacts with short-chain alcohols such as methanol or ethanol, using a catalyst to produce biodiesel efficiently.
Statement 3 is correct: Maize plays a significant role in the production of various alcoholic beverages. Its starch is broken down into sugars, which are subsequently fermented to produce alcohol. This process is crucial in crafting drinks like bourbon whiskey, which traditionally uses a mash containing at least 51% maize.
UPSC 2014Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q63. The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to:
Explanation
Marginal standing facility (MSF) is a window for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. Banks borrow from the central bank by pledging government securities at a rate higher than the repo rate under liquidity adjustment facility(LAF). The MSF rate is pegged 100 basis points or 1 percentage point above the repo rate. Under MSF banks can borrow funds up to one percentage of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL). Demand Liabilities Demand Liabilities of a bank are liabilities which are pay-able on demand. These include current deposits, demand liabilities portion of savings bank deposits, margins held against letters of credit/guarantees, cash certificates and cumulative/ recurring deposits, Demand Drafts (DDs), unclaimed deposits, credit balances in the Cash Credit account etc. Time Liabilities Time Liabilities of a bank are those which are payable otherwise than on demand. These include fixed deposits, cash certificates, cumulative and recurring deposits, time liabilities portion of savings bank deposits, staff security deposits etc. The difference between a bank’s total demand and time liabilities (deposits) and its deposits in the form of assets held by another bank is represented by the term "Net Demand and Time Liabilities".
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q64. Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of the other three?
Explanation
The animal kingdom is broadly classified into different phyla based on structural and functional characteristics.
Option (a) is correct: Arthropoda is the largest phylum in the animal kingdom, including organisms with jointed appendages, segmented bodies, and exoskeletons made of chitin. The phylum is further divided into several subphyla, two of which are:
Chelicerata (includes arachnids like mites, spiders, and scorpions) and Crustacea (includes crabs and other aquatic arthropods). The subphylum Chelicerata (e.g., spiders, scorpions) has two body regions, no antennae, four pairs of legs, and uses chelicerae for feeding, adapted to terrestrial life with book lungs. Crustacea (e.g., crabs, lobsters) has three body regions, two pairs of antennae, gills for respiration, and compound eyes, primarily adapted to aquatic habitats with specialized mandibles. Hence, the crab does not belong to the same class as the mite, spider, and scorpion.
UPSC 2014Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q65. What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas? 1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages. 2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Banking Correspondents (BCs) also known as Bank Saathis are individuals or entities hired by banks in India (including commercial banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), and Local Area Banks (LABs)) to provide banking services in areas with limited or no banking access. A BC acts as an agent for the bank, serving as a substitute for the bank’s physical branch.
Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the Business Correspondent (BC) Model in 2006 to improve financial inclusion in India. BCs play a critical role in disbursing direct benefit transfers (DBT), including subsidies and social security payments, to beneficiaries in rural areas. This eliminates the need for beneficiaries to travel long distances to a bank branch to collect their payments.
Statement 2 is correct: BCs offer a range of basic banking services, including accepting deposits, facilitating withdrawals, and enabling other small transactions. This brings basic banking services to people who previously had limited or no access.
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q66. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?
Explanation
A food chain represents the transfer of energy through a series of organisms, starting from green plants (primary producers) and progressing through successive consumers. For example: Grasses Grasshopper Frog Snake Hawk/ Eagle. Each step in the food chain is referred to as a trophic level, indicating the organism’s position in the chain. Food chains begin with producers and end with top carnivores. In marine ecosystems, phytoplankton serve as primary producers. These include:
Diatoms (unicellular algae) Coccolithophores (unicellular eukaryotic protists), Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae such as Synechococcus, Prochlorococcus, Nostoc, and Spirogyra) Dinoflagellates (flagellated protists) Crustaceans, a group of arthropods that includes crabs, lobsters, shrimp, krill, and barnacles, feed on diatoms. In turn, herrings, a type of fish, consume crustaceans, completing this segment of the marine food chain.
UPSC 2014Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q67. In the context of the Indian economy, which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’? 1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create. 2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid. 3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits. 4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statutory Reserve Requirements, such as the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) are regulatory tools employed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ensure the stability and liquidity of the banking system. These requirements mandate that commercial banks maintain a certain percentage of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) in the form of liquid asset
Statement 1 is correct: When the central bank wants to increase the money supply in the economy, it lowers the reserve ratio. Hence it enables the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create.
Statement 2 is correct: RBI requires commercial banks to keep reserves in order to ensure that banks have sufficient assets to draw on when account holders want to be paid.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Reserve requirements are de-signed as "precautionary measures" to control the economy and not to stop banks from making "excessive" profit.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Vault cash (cash held by banks in their vaults) is separate from CRR. CRR is the cash banks must hold with the RBI, not in their own vaults. While banks need sufficient vault cash for daily operations, this is a separate operational requirement, not directly enforced by the SRR.
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q68. With reference to technology for solar power production, consider the following statements: 1. Photovoltaics is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilises the Sun’s rays to generate heat which is further used in the electricity generation process. 2. Photovoltaics-generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC). 3. India has a manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for photovoltaics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: PV technology directly converts sunlight into electricity using semiconductor materials like silicon. When sunlight hits the PV cells, it excites electrons, generating Direct Current (DC) electricity. This is a clean and efficient method of harnessing solar energy for electricity. Solar thermal systems use solar collectors to capture the Sun’s heat. This heat is typically used to produce steam, which drives turbines connected to generators, producing electricity. Solar thermal is often used in large-scale power plants and heating systems.
Statement 2 is incorrect: PV systems initially produce Direct Current (DC), which is then converted to Alternating Current (AC) using inverters for compatibility with the electrical grid and household appliances. Solar Thermal systems generate heat, which is used to produce AC electricity through conventional turbines and generators.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India has established manufacturing capabilities for both Solar Thermal and Photovoltaic technologies. The country is expanding its PV manufacturing capacity, aiming to become self-sufficient and reduce reliance on imports.
UPSC 2014Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q69. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Eco-Sensitive Zones are defined "as areas/zones with identified environmental resources having incomparable values which require special attention for their conservation" because of its landscape, wildlife, biodiversity, historical and natural values.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) stipulates that state governments should declare land falling within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) under the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986 and not Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The basic aim is to regulate certain activities around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries so as to minimise the negative impacts of such activities on the fragile ecosystem encompassing the protected area. In Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs), prohibited activities include commercial mining, polluting industries, and large hydropower projects. Regulated activities involve tree felling, hotel construction, and road widening. Permitted activities include ongoing farming, organic practices, rainwater harvesting, and use of renewable energy. Activities such as eco-tourism, education, and sustainable development can take place under the guidelines issued by MoEFCC
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q70. Consider the following: 1. Bats2. Bears3. Rodents The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
Explanation
Hibernation is a survival strategy employed by various animals to endure periods of reduced food availability and harsh environmental conditions, typically during winter. This state is characterized by significantly lowered metabolic rates, decreased body temperatures, and reduced physiological activities. Many bat species enter hibernation during colder months when their insect prey becomes scarce. During hibernation, bats can experience a substantial drop in body temperature and significant reduction in metabolic rate. They often hibernate communally in caves, mines, or other sheltered locations that provide stable, cold environments. Bears undergo a form of hibernation known as torpor, which is less extreme than the hibernation observed in smaller mammals. During torpor, bears experience a moderate decrease in body temperature and metabolic rate. They remain in dens throughout the winter months, surviving on stored body fat. Notably, female bears give birth during this period and are capable of nursing their cubs without leaving the den. Species such as ground squirrels and certain mice enter deep hibernation during which they significantly lower their body temperatures and metabolic rates. This state allows them to conserve energy and survive extended periods without food. Rodents often prepare for hibernation by accumulating fat reserves and creating insulated nests or burrows to protect against the cold.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
61
2014
(b) 2 and 3 only
62
2014
(d) 1, 2 and 3
63
2014
(a) banking operations
64
2014
(a) Crab
65
2014
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
66
2014
(a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
67
2014
(b) 1 and 2 only
68
2014
(a) 1 only
69
2014
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
70
2014
(c) 1, 2 and 3
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 96 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2014 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2014 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.