UPSC 2014 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

A Protected Area is a clearly defined geographical space, recognized, dedicated and managed through legal or other effective means, to achieve the long-term conservation of nature with associated ecosystem services and cultural values. Biosphere reserves, Botanical gardens, National parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, Conseravation and Community reserve etc are examples of protected areas.

Option (a) is correct:

Biosphere reserves are legally protected regions where people and the environment can coexist while honouring each other’s needs. These areas might be terrestrial, coastal, or a combination of both. They are recognised under UNESCO’s MAB programme and nominated and established by the relevant nations. They consist of three zones: the core zone, buffer zone, and transition zone. The core zone is strictly protected, while the buffer and transition zones allow for sustainable human activities, ensuring a balance between conservation and livelihood. Unlike national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, which primarily focus on preserving wildlife, biosphere reserves encourage sustainable human activity and help integrate conservation with traditional practices. Therefore, they serve as a model for preserving biodiversity alongside the needs of local communities.

Explanation

The carbon cycle is a biogeochemical process where carbon atoms continuously move between the atmosphere, oceans, soil, and living organisms through processes like photosynthesis, respiration, decomposition, and combustion. Through photosynthesis, plants absorb atmospheric CO₂ to produce glucose, while animals release CO₂ through respiration, and when organisms die, decomposition returns their carbon to the soil and atmosphere, completing this vital planetary cycle.

Statement 1 is correct: Volcanic eruptions release CO₂ stored in Earth’s mantle into the atmosphere, contributing to the carbon cycle.

Statement 2 is correct: Respiration is the process by which organisms, including plants and animals, convert organic compounds into energy, producing CO₂ as a byproduct. This CO₂ is then released into the atmosphere.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria absorb CO₂ from the atmosphere and, using sunlight, convert it into glucose and oxygen. This process removes CO₂ from the atmosphere.

Statement 4 is correct: When organisms die, decomposers like bacteria and fungi break down their organic matter, resulting in the release of CO₂ back into the atmosphere through the process of decomposition.

Explanation

Ecological succession is the process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time. Types of Succession:

Primary Succession occurs on newly formed or exposed land where no previous life existed (e.g., bare rock, lava flows). Pioneer species like lichens and mosses initiate the process, gradually leading to the development of soil and a stable ecosystem. Secondary Succession happens in areas where an ecosystem previously existed but was disturbed (e.g., after a forest fire or flood). Soil is already present, and recovery occurs more quickly than in primary succession.

Option (b) is correct: Lichens are among the first organisms to colonize bare rock or barren environments, breaking down minerals to create soil and paving the way for other plants and organisms. They are unique composite organisms resulting from a symbiotic association between a fungus and a photosynthetic partner, which can be either green algae or cyanobacteria. In this partnership, the fungal component, known as the mycobiont, provides structure and protection, while the photosynthetic partner, referred to as the photobiont, contributes nutrients through photosynthesis.

Explanation

Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858) ended East India Company rule, bringing India directly under British Crown control. Lord Canning became the first Viceroy and Governor-General.

Statement 1 is correct: The proclamation was read out by Lord Canning at a durbar held on November 1, 1858 at Allahabad. The proclamation put an end to the era of further expansion of the British Empire in India.

Statement 2 is correct: Queen Victoria’s proclamation of 1858 aimed at ending the rule of the company and transferring all the powers to the British crown after the 1857 revolt. It also promised non- interference in the religious affairs of the people, grant of equal protection of law and respect for ancient rights and customs of the people.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858) is aimed at improving the administrative machinery of supervision and control over the Indian government.

Explanation

Article 124(1) of the Indian Constitution mandates the establishment of the Supreme Court, consisting of the Chief Justice of India and such other judges as Parliament may prescribe from time to time.

Option (b) is correct: The power to increase the number of Supreme Court judges lies with Parliament. Under the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2019, the number of judges was increased by three, bringing the total number of judges, including the Chief Justice, to 34, up from 31.

Explanation

According to Article 131, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction over disputes between two or more states. It also handles disputes between the Central Government and one or more states, or between different states and the Centre. The Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction is exclusive in such federal disputes, meaning only the Court can resolve these matters. This ensures that conflicts between the Government of India and states are directly addressed by the Supreme Court.

Explanation

Azadirachta indica, commonly known as the Indian neem tree, is a tropical evergreen belonging to the Meliaceae family, native to the Indian subcontinent, renowned for its medicinal and ecological significance. Neem is typically grown in tropical and subtropical regions.

Statement 1 is correct: Neem oil and neem barks are used as an insect repellent and can be used for controlling the spread of some insects and mites.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While neem seeds contain oil, which has potential as biofuel, the manufacturing of hospital detergents is not a common or widespread use of neem seeds. The primary application of neem oil in hospital settings is in disin-fectants or antiseptic creams, not detergents specifically.

Statement 3 is correct: Neem oil has multiple applications in the pharmaceutical industry. Neem is considered a weed and based on its antimicrobial resistance and other antifungal properties, they are also used in pharmaceutical and cosmetic industries.

Explanation

Gangetic dolphins live in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, In-dia, and Bangladesh. The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater. They are essentially blind. They are also called ‘susu’.

Statement 1 is correct: Dams and barrages disrupt the natural flow of rivers, reducing the availability of suitable habitats for the dolphins. They also fragment populations and prevent dolphins from migrating to areas with adequate food resources. These structures can obstruct the dolphins’ access to breeding and feeding grounds.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While crocodiles may compete with dolphins for food yet an increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers is not considered a threat to Gangetic dolphins.

Statement 3 is correct: Dolphins die as a result of accidentally being caught in fishing nets, also known as bycatch.

Statement 4 is correct: The use of pesticides and fertilizers in agricultural practices leads to water pollution, which can degrade the dolphins’ habitat by reducing water quality and food availability (as it affects the aquatic food chain).

Explanation

Option 2 is correct: Common mynas are native to South Asia, with their breeding range extending from Afghanistan through India and Sri Lanka to Bangladesh. They have been introduced to many tropical regions worldwide, except South America. While generally resident in India, occasional east-west movements occur. The Common Myna is an omnivorous, opportunistic feeder, often foraging on insects disturbed by grazing cattle. It thrives in urban environments and is known for its strong territorial instincts, often found in open woodlands.

Option 1 is incorrect: Painted storks forage in flocks in shallow waters along rivers or lakes. A wading bird that lives in the wet-lands of tropical Asia. They feed on fish, frogs, and insects in shallow water. It has distinctive pink tertial feathers Option 3 is incorrect: The habitat of Black-necked Crane is in the high altitude wetlands and grasslands of the Tibetan plateau, Sichuan (China), and eastern Ladakh (India). They are not opportunistic feeders.

Explanation

The Himalayan ecosystem exhibits distinct vegetation zones based on altitude and climate.

Statement 1 is correct: Oak trees dominate the temperate broadleaf forests of the Himalayas. They are typically found between 1,500-3,000 meters. Common species include Quercus leucotrichophora (Banj Oak) in the western Himalayas (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh) and Quercus semecarpifolia (Kharsu Oak) at higher elevations. Oak forests play a key role in soil conservation and water retention, making them ecologically vital.

Statement 2 is correct: Coniferous trees like Rhododendron, pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce and cedar, are found in the temperate forests (1500 and 3000 metres). Some key species include Rhododendron arboreum (Buransh), found in Uttarakhand and Sikkim, and Rhododendron hodgsonii, which thrives in Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya. The vibrant flowers contribute to pollination cycles and biodiversity.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Sandalwood does not naturally grow in the Himalayas. It is native to tropical dry deciduous forests. It is primarily found in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Andhra Pradesh, at lower altitudes (600-1,200 meters). Its preference for warm, arid conditions makes it unsuitable for Himalayan climates.