96 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2014 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 31–40 of 96 questions
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UPSC 2014Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q31. Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use? 1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment. 2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Brominated Flame Retardants (BFRs) are mixtures of man-made chemicals that are added to a wide variety of products, including for industrial use, to make them less flammable. They are used commonly in plastics, textiles and electrical/electronic equipment. Statements 1 is correct: Brominated Flame Retardants (BFRs)don’t degrade easily in fact they are highly resistant to degradation in the environment. Statements 2 is correct: Some brominated flame retardants were identified as persistent, bioaccumulative, and toxic to both humans and the environment and were suspected of causing neurobehavioral effects and endocrine disruption.
UPSC 2014Medieval History · Miscellaneous
Q32. In Medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for
Explanation
In Medieval India, particularly during the Delhi Sultanate and the early Mughal period, the terms Mahattara and pattakila were the village headmen. Pattalika is generally identified with the modern Patel, believed to be the king’s representative in the village. Mahattara was a non-official and possibly a representative of the people. The Mahattara had significant authority within the village and was often tasked with overseeing the community’s activities and ensuring that taxes were collected and local disputes were settled.
UPSC 2014Geography · Geomorphology
Q33. Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms? 1. Continental drift 2. Glacial cycles Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Continental drift is the gradual movement of Earth’s continents due to tectonic plate activity. It causes geographical isolation, leading to divergent evolution and speciation. Species adapt to new environments, creating distinct biogeographical patterns like the unique primates in Australia and South America. This process has shaped evolutionary changes over time.
Statement 2 is correct: Periodic advances and retreats of ice sheets, impacting climate and sea levels. It creates environmental pressures, pushing species to adapt. Glacial cycles result in population bottlenecks, migration, or extinction and influences evolutionary paths. The Pleistocene glaciations played a crucial role in shaping the distribution and diversity of many species observed today
UPSC 2014Geography · Geomorphology
Q34. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following? 1. Terrace cultivation 2. Deforestation 3. Tropical climate Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Soil erosion is the process by which soil is displaced and transported from one location to another by natural forces such as wind or water. It is a natural process that occurs over time, but human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, and construction can accelerate the process, leading to significant environmental damage.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Terrace cultivation is a *method to * prevent soil erosion, not a factor associated with it. Terraces are leveled platforms built into hillsides to slow down the flow of water and reduce soil loss. So, this option is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct: Deforestation is one of the major reasons for soil erosion. It includes cutting and felling of trees, removal of forest litter. Browsing and trampling by livestock, forest fires, also leads to deforestation, etc. Vegetation plays a critical role in anchoring soil, reducing the impact of rainfall, and protecting against wind erosion. When forests are cleared, the soil becomes exposed and vulnerable to erosion.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While a tropical climate can contribute to soil erosion in some cases (heavy rainfall can increase water erosion) but it isn’t a direct cause in itself. Many tropical areas with dense vegetation have relatively low erosion rates. The lack of vegetation (often due to deforestation) in a tropical climate is the real problem.
UPSC 2014Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Q35. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2°C above the pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3°C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world? 1. The terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source. 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur. 3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear. 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: If the global temperature increases beyond 3 “C above the pre-industrial level, the terrestrial biosphere will tend towards being a net carbon source. Taiga and temperate forests act as an important carbon sink that would turn into a carbon source.
Statement 2 is correct: As temperatures rise, mass coral bleaching events occur. If the temperature keeps on rising, widespread coral mortality will occur.
Statement 3 and 4 are incorrect: The temperate regions can still survive if the temperature increases. The temperate zones are where the widest seasonal changes occur. The vegetation can survive there. The weather should be warm and moist during the early stage of the growth of cereals. Therefore, the cultivation of cereals would still be possible if the temperature rises.
UPSC 2014Modern History · Indian National Movement III (1930-1947)
Q36. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to:
Explanation
The Radcliffe Committee was appointed by the British government in 1947 tasked with demarcating the borders between the newly independent nations of India and Pakistan. The division primarily focused on the regions of Punjab and Bengal, where large Hindu and Muslim populations coexisted. The resulting Radcliffe Line was announced on August 17, 1947, two days after India’s independence. The border division led to massive population displacement, causing widespread violence and communal riots, with millions of people migrating across the new borders, resulting in significant loss of life and property.
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q37. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Spacecraft
Purpose
1. Cassini-Huygens
Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
2. Messenger
Mapping and investigating
3. Voyager 1 and 2
Exploring the outer solar system
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Cassini-Huygens mission was a collaborative project between NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA), and the Italian Space Agency (ASI) to study Saturn and its moons, not Venus. Huygens probe landed on Titan, Saturn’s largest moon in 2005 and provided valuable data about its atmosphere and surface.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Messenger (MErcury Surface, Space ENvironment, GEochemistry, and Ranging) spacecraft was a NASA mission designed to study Mercury. It orbited Mercury and mapped its surface, studying its geology, and investigating its magnetic field and exosphere.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Voyager 1 and Voyager 2 spacecraft were launched by NASA in 1977 to explore the outer planets of the solar system. Voyager 1 flew by Jupiter and Saturn, providing detailed images and data about these planets and their moons. Voyager 2 visited all four outer planets:
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. The spacecraft are now in interstellar space, continuing to transmit data about the heliosphere and beyond.
UPSC 2014Polity · Systems of Government
Q38. Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which: 1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority. 2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
A constitutional government is one that operates within the framework of a Constitution. The principle of constitutionalism emphasizes limiting the power of the state to ensure it remains fair and accountable, preventing any form of autocratic rule.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority" is not characteristic of a Constitutional Government. One of the fundamental principles of a constitutional government is to protect individual rights and freedoms and not to restrict them unnecessarily in favor of state authority.
Statement 2 is correct: A constitutional government limits the authority of the state to prevent it from infringing on individual rights and freedoms. This is achieved through mechanisms such as constitutional checks and balances, the separation of powers, and the judicial review of government actions.
UPSC 2014Polity · President
Q39. Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
The executive organ of government is responsible for implementing and enforcing laws and policies enacted by the legislature. It is typically headed by the President or Prime Minister and includes various government departments and agencies.
Statement 1 is correct: India follows a Parliamentary type of Government in which the President is the constitutional head of the state. He is the Executive head of India. Article 77(3) of the Indian Constitution says that the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 77(1) of the Indian Constitution lays down all executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.
Exam tip:
S2 aligns with Function-person/organisation/ministry match trap as its easy to manipulate to make it false. Is it PM or President?
UPSC 2014Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q40. Consider the following pairs:
Programme/Project
Ministry
1. Drought-Prone Area Programme
Ministry of Agriculture
2. Desert Development Programme
Ministry of Environment and Forests
3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas
Ministry of Rural Development
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Drought-Prone Area Programme (DPAP) was launched in 1973-74 to mitigate the effects of drought in drought-prone areas by promoting sustainable development. It is implemented under the Ministry of Rural Development, not the Ministry of Agriculture. The programme focuses on watershed development, soil conservation, and water harvesting to improve agricultural productivity in drought-affected regions.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The Desert Development Programme aims to combat desertification and mitigate the adverse effects of drought in desert areas. This programme is also over-seen by the Department of Land Resources within the Ministry of Rural Development, not the Ministry of Environment and Forests. The DDP aims to minimize the adverse effects of drought and control desertification through the rejuvenation of the natural resource base in identified desert areas.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: The National Watershed Devel-opment Project for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA) focuses on the development of rainfed regions to enhance agricultural productivity and sustainability. This project is implemented by the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, not the Ministry of Rural Development.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
31
2014
(c) Both 1 and 2
32
2014
(b) Village officers
33
2014
(c) Both 1 and 2
34
2014
(b) 2 only
35
2014
(b) 1 and 2 only
36
2014
(c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
37
2014
(b) 2 and 3 only
38
2014
(b) 2 only
39
2014
(a) 1 only
40
2014
(d) None
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 96 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2014 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2014 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.