3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 3121–3130 of 3238 questions
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UPSC 1996Modern History · The Advent of the Europeans in India
Q3121. Who among the following was the first European to initiate the policy of taking part in the quarrels of Indian princes with a view to acquire territories?
Explanation
Option (b) is correct: Joseph François Dupleix, the French Governor-General in India, was the first European to actively involve himself in the disputes and power struggles of Indian rulers. Dupleix actively pursued a policy of interference in local Indian disputes, particularly during the Carnatic Wars (1746-1763) and the succession conflicts in Hyderabad. He supported rival claimants and used French military power to influence Indian politics. In the First Carnatic War (1746-1748), Dupleix allied with Chanda Sahib against Anwar-ud-Din, the Nawab of Arcot, to strengthen French influence in the region. During the Second Carnatic War (1749-1754), he backed Muzaffar Jung for the throne of Hyderabad and Chanda Sahib for the Nawabship of Arcot, aiming to expand French control in South India. Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
Robert Clive, known for expanding British rule in India, adopted similar strategies to Dupleix, especially after the Battle of Plassey (1757). Afonso de Albuquerque, a Portuguese general, focused on maritime dominance, controlling key ports like Goa and Malacca, rather than engaging in local territorial disputes. Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General of Bengal (1773-1785), implemented reforms but built upon the policies of Clive and Dupleix, not initiating the first interventions in princely conflicts.
UPSC 1996Polity · Basic Concepts
Q3122. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India. Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Explanation
Assertion(A) is true: The Constitution of India does not define the term "minority." While the Constitution provides for the protection of minorities through various provisions (such as Articles 29 and 30), the word "minority" itself is not defined. However, certain minority groups are recognized and protected, but the Constitution leaves the exact definition to be determined by laws, such as the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. Reason (R) is true: The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) is not a constitutional body; it was created under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992, passed by Parliament. Unlike other commissions such as the Election Commission, Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), and Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), the NCM is a statutory body, not one established by the Constitution. However, Reason (R) does not explain Assertion (A) directly. The fact that the Minorities Commission is a statutory body does not explain why the term "minority" is not defined in the Constitution.
UPSC 1996Geography · Solar System and Evolution of Earth
Q3123. "Diamond ring" is a phenomenon observed:
Explanation
The "Diamond Ring" phenomenon is a striking optical effect observed during a total solar eclipse. It occurs when a small sliver of the Sun’s light is visible around the edge of the Moon, creating the appearance of a brilliant diamond resting on a luminous ring. This effect is typically seen moments just before the eclipse reaches totality or immediately after it ends.
UPSC 1996Ancient History · History of the Vedic Period
Q3124. The river most mentioned in early Vedic literature is:
Explanation
Vedic literature consists of the Vedas, which are the oldest religious texts of India, comprising hymns, rituals, and philosophical teachings. It includes four Vedas--Rigveda, Yajurveda, Samaveda, and Atharvaveda--and their associated texts like the Brahmanas, Aranyakas, and Upanishads. The river most mentioned in early Vedic literature is the Sindhu. It is mentioned over 150 times in the Rig Veda, the oldest known Hindu text. The Sindhu is identical to the Indus River and is considered to be a sacred river associated with fertility, abundance and prosperity. Other rivers that are mentioned in early Vedic literature include the Saraswati, Yamuna and Ganges. Saraswati is called naditama or the best of the rivers in the Rig Veda.
UPSC 1996Environment and Ecology · Ecology, Ecosystem and Functions of Ecosystem
Q3125. Consider the following programmes: 1. Afforestation and development of wastelands 2. Reforestation and replantation in existing forests 3. Encouraging the wood substitutes and supplying other types of fuel 4. Promotion of wide use of insecticides and pesticides to restrict the loss of forest area from degradation caused by pests and insects. The National Forest Policy of 1988 includes:
Explanation
National forest policy 1988 was introduced with the principal aim of ensuring environmental stability and maintaining ecological balance including atmospheric equilibrium which are vital for sustenance of all life forms, human, animal and plant. Key objectives of National Forest Policy 1988 are:
Increasing substantially the forest/tree cover in the country through massive afforestation, reforestation and social forestry programmes Encouraging efficient utilisation of forest produce and maximising substitution of wood. Checking soil erosion and denudation in the catchment areas of rivers, lakes, reservoirs. However, the National Forest Policy of 1988 does not promote the wide use of insecticides and pesticides. Instead, it emphasizes the importance of maintaining a balanced ecosystem and preserving biodiversity within forests.
UPSC 1996Indian Economy · Planning in India and Economic Reforms
Q3126. The Eighth Five Year Plan is different from the earliest ones. The critical difference lies in the fact that:
Explanation
The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992-1997) emphasized infrastructure growth alongside economic liberalization and privatization introduced in 1991. The plan aimed to develop sectors like power, transportation, and telecommunications to drive industrial and economic growth.
UPSC 1996Indian Economy · Planning in India and Economic Reforms
Q3127. Which one of the following is correct regarding stabilization and structural adjustment as two components of the new economic policy adopted in India?
Explanation
Stabilization refers to short-term macroeconomic policies aimed at reducing inflation, fiscal deficit, and balance of payments crises. It involves quick adjustments to restore financial stability. To stabilize the economy in 1991, India immediately raised interest rates to control inflation and stabilize foreign reserves. Structural adjustment refers to long-term reforms focused on improving the efficiency of the economy through trade liberalization, privatization, and regulatory reforms. These are gradual and multi-step processes. Ex-After the 1991 stabilization measures, India undertook long-term structural reforms such as liberalizing trade and privatizing state-owned enterprises.
UPSC 1996Indian Economy · Planning in India and Economic Reforms
Q3128. One of the important goals of the economic liberalisation policy is to achieve full convertibility of the Indian rupee. This is being advocated because:
Explanation
Full convertibility would mean the rupee exchange rate would be left to market factors without any regulatory intervention. There would be no limit on inflow or outflow of capital for various purposes including investments, remittances, or asset purchases/sales. Full convertibility of the Indian rupee is primarily aimed at promoting exports by making trade transactions easier and eliminating restrictions on currency exchange. This helps Indian exporters compete in global markets by allowing free movement of capital.
UPSC 1996Science and Technology · Biotechnology
Q3129. Which of the following professional(s) are more likely to run the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA? 1. Researchers using Carbon 14 isotope 2. X-ray technician 3. Coal miner 4. Dyer and painter Select the correct answer by using the codes given below Codes:
Explanation
DNA damage and permanent mutations are likely in professionals exposed to mutagenic agents like radiation, toxic chemicals, or hazardous environments.
Statement 1 is correct: Researchers using Carbon-14 isotopes are exposed to beta radiation from the radioactive isotope. Prolonged exposure can damage DNA and increase the risk of mutations.
Statement 2 is correct: X-ray technicians are at risk due to ionizing radiation, which can break DNA strands and cause chromosomal abnormalities. Protective measures like lead aprons are essential to minimize exposure.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While coal miners are exposed to harmful substances like coal dust and radon gas, these hazards are more strongly linked to respiratory diseases (e.g., black lung disease) and lung cancer, rather than direct, widespread DNA changes. Hence, it may not be included as a primary factor for widespread DNA changes.
Statement 4 is correct: Chemicals found in dyes and paints, such as benzene and lead-based compounds, can be harmful. They can cause cell damage and increase the risk of DNA changes. Long-term exposure is linked to a higher risk of cancer.
UPSC 1996Art and Culture · Literature
Q3130. Which one of the following texts of ancient India allows divorce to a wife deserted by her husband?
Explanation
Arthashastra, attributed to Kautilya, contains provisions related to social and economic aspects, including marriage and divorce. According to Arthashastra, a wife deserted by her husband had the legal right to seek divorce and remarry. If a man abandoned his wife without valid reason then she could remarry after waiting for a certain period. It also mentions conditions under which a woman could remarry if her husband was missing, dead, or had become a renunciate (ascetic).
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
3121
1996
(b) Dupleix
3122
1996
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation
3123
1996
(c) only along the peripheral regions of the totality trail
3124
1996
(a) Sindhu
3125
1996
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3126
1996
(c) considerable emphasis is placed on infrastructure growth
3127
1996
(b) Structural adjustment is a gradual multi-step process, while stabilization is a quick adaptation process
3128
1996
(c) it will help to promote exports
3129
1996
(c) 1, 2 and 4
3130
1996
(d) Arthashastra
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This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.