3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 171–180 of 3238 questions
Browse by subjectBrowse by year
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Species
Q171. Consider the following statements: 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Both males and females of the lions are polygamous and breed throughout the year, but females are usually restricted to one or two adult males of their pride. In captivity, lions often breed every year, but in the wild, they usually breed no more than once in two years. Females are receptive to mating for three or four days within a widely variable reproductive cycle.
Statement 2 is correct: There are four big cats that can roar: lion, tiger, leopard and jaguar - all of which belong to the genus Panthera. In these species, the epihyal bone, part of the voice box, is replaced by a ligament. This can be stretched, creating a larger sound-producing passage and thus a wider range of pitch. The bones of the cheetah’s voice box form a fixed structure, with divided vocal cords that vibrate with both in and out breaths. This structure is the same for all the ’small’ cats. While this design enables these cats to purr continuously, it limits the range of other sounds and prevents them from being able to roar.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Leopards are known for their solitary nature and impressive hunting abilities. They are skilled predators that primarily hunt at night, using their incredible agility and stealth to catch a variety of prey. Leopards are considered opportunistic hunters, adapting and targeting different species based on availability and their specific habitat. To avoid competition and conflicts, leopards establish their own territories, marking them with scent and claw marks on trees. Male leopards will fiercely defend their territories if they overlap with other males.
Exam tip:
For S3, By observed logic: Even Dogs and cats mark their territories then why wouldn’t leopard? Unlikely hence false. Gives option A as correct.
UPSC 2024Modern History · Economic Policies of the British
Q172. With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements: 1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities. 2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: In Ryotwari system the government revenue was a fixed amount, irrespective of crop output, and was to be paid in cash. Thus during periods of bad crops or low prices the peasants were forced to pay the land revenue, even if it required borrowing from moneylenders.
Statement 2 is correct: In the Zamindari system the revenue was invariable, regardless of the harvest, and had to be paid punctually. According to the Sunset Law, if payment did not come in by sunset of the specified date, the zamindari was liable to be auctioned.
Exam tip:
For S1, would a colonial revenue system -- dependent on land tax -- really exempt peasants systematically in bad years? That’s wishful logic, not colonial logic. Hence likely false.
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Miscellaneous
Q173. Consider the following materials: 1. Agricultural residues 2. Corn grain 3. Wastewater treatment sludge 4. Wood mill waste Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
Explanation
Sustainable aviation fuel (SAF), hydrogen and electric all have a role to play in the decarbonization of aviation. SAF is vitally important as it can address decarbonization of fuel over its lifecycle, and this is now available to be used in all turbine engines including in mid and long-range aircraft. Therefore, understanding the feedstock landscape as well as the technology pathways is integral to maximising the production and supply of SAF. The production of SAF starts with one of five main families of raw materials:
Corn grain Oil seeds Algae Other fats, oils, and greases Agricultural residues Forestry residues Wood mill waste Municipal solid waste streams Wet wastes (manures, wastewater treatment sludge) Dedicated energy crops.
Exam tip:
You can try, The "NOT" approach for all statements, this tests the improbability of negating a statement--if denying its impact seems highly unlikely, the statement is plausibly true. For Example: Agri reside or mill waste or sludge are NOT used in fuel manufacturing? unlikely.
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Miscellaneous
Q174. Consider the following: 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Re-sources"?
Explanation
Distributed energy resources, or DERs, are small-scale energy systems that power a nearby location. DERs can be connected to electric grids or isolated, with energy flowing only to specific sites or functions. DERs include both energy generation technologies and energy storage systems. When energy generation occurs through distributed energy re-sources, it is referred to as distributed generation. Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include:
Roof top solar photovoltaic units Wind generating units Battery storage Batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid Combined heat and power units, or tri-generation units that also utilise waste heat to provide cooling Biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural by-products. Open and closed cycle gas turbines Reciprocating engines (diesel, oil) Hydro and mini-hydro schemes Fuel cells.
UPSC 2024Polity · Centre-State Relations
Q175. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
Explanation
Inter-State quarantine is in the Union List (entry 81) of 7th schedule. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:
Inter-State trade and commerce is a Union subject (entry 42) under the Union List. Inter-State migration is a Union Subject (entry 81) under the Union List. Corporation tax is a Union subject (entry 85) under the Union List.
Additional insight:
The 7th Schedule classifies subjects under three lists--Union List, State List, and Concurrent List--to define legislative powers between the Centre and States under Article 246. Some of the major subjects under the respective lists are as follows:
Union List
State List
Concurrent List
Defence
Public Order
Criminal Law and Procedure
Foreign Affairs
Police
Marriage and Divorce
Banking
Public Health and Sanitation
Bankruptcy and Insolvency
Atomic Energy
Agriculture
Education
Interstate Trade and Commerce
Fisheries
Forests
Railways
Land and Land Reforms
Protection of Wildlife
Post and Telegraph
Markets and Fairs
Labour Welfare
Citizenship, Naturalization and Aliens
Liquor and Alcohol Production
Electricity
Insurance
Local Government
Trade Unions
Regulation of Stock Exchanges
Betting and Gambling
Economic and Social Planning
UPSC 2024Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q176. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities 1. Insurance Companies 2. Pension Funds 3. Retail Investors Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Option 1 is correct: Insurance companies in India can trade in both Corporate Bonds and Government Securities (G-Secs). The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) allows insurance companies to invest in Government Bonds, Corporate Bonds, and Infrastructure Bonds, subject to prescribed limits.
Option 2 is correct: Pension funds are allowed to invest in both government securities (G-Secs) and corporate bonds. For example, the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) permits pension funds under the National Pension System (NPS) to invest in Government Bonds, State Development Loans (SDLs), and Corporate Debt. Since pension funds focus on long-term stability, they often prefer G-Secs, which offer secure and steady returns for retirement benefits.
Option 3 is correct: Retail investors can trade in both corporate bonds and government securities. The RBI’s Retail Direct Scheme enables individuals to directly buy and sell government securities. Corporate bonds are available for trading on the debt segments of BSE and NSE, and retail investors can access them through debt mutual funds, bond markets, and stock exchanges.
Additional insight:
Government Securities (G-Secs) are debt instruments issued by the government to finance fiscal needs. They include Treasury Bills (short-term) and dated securities (long-term) and are considered low-risk investments due to government backing. Corporate Bonds are debt instruments issued by companies to raise capital from investors. In return, the company promises to pay periodic interest and repay the principal at maturity. They carry varying levels of risk depending on the issuer’s creditworthiness. The government securities (G-Sec) market was traditionally dominated by large institutional investors. However, regulatory measures have encouraged smaller entities like cooperative banks, small pension funds, and provident funds to invest in G-Secs. Institutions such as cooperative banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are also required to hold G-Secs as part of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requirement. To expand participation, the RBI launched the Retail Direct Scheme, allowing individual investors to directly buy and sell G-Secs.
Exam tip:
You can try, The "NOT" approach for all statements, this tests the improbability of negating a statement--if denying its impact seems highly unlikely, the statement is plausibly true. How can you stop someone from trading? Hence likely all are true.
UPSC 2024Polity · Non-Constitutional Bodies
Q177. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members? 1. Governor of the Constituent State 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 4. The Home Minister of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
The North Eastern Council (NEC) is not a constitutional body but a statutory organization established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971, as amended in 2002. Initially, NEC was an Advisory Body for the North Eastern Region (NER). NEC’s composition was revised by the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002. After the amendment:
Option 1 is correct: The Governors of the eight North Eastern States are members of the NEC.
Option 2 is correct: The Chief Ministers of the eight North Eastern States are also members of the NEC.
Option 3 is correct: The President nominates three members to the NEC.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Union Home Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the NEC but is not considered a member under Section 3 of the Act.
UPSC 2024Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q178. Consider the following: 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) 2. Motor vehicles 3. Currency swap Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
Explanation
A financial instrument is a contractual agreement that creates a financial asset for one party and a corresponding financial liability or equity instrument for another party. Options 1 and 3 are correct:
Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) are considered financial instruments as they represent a portfolio of assets (stocks, bonds, or commodities) and are traded on stock exchanges. They are intangible assets that provide claims to future cash flows or ownership interests. A currency swap is a financial instrument used in international finance. It involves the exchange of principal and interest payments in different currencies between two parties, helping manage foreign exchange risks. Option 2 is incorrect: Motor vehicles are not financial instruments. They are physical assets used for transportation and do not represent any contractual claim to future cash flows or monetary value in financial markets.
UPSC 2024Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q179. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
The United States government issues Treasury Bonds (T-Bonds) as a way to borrow money. These bonds are considered one of the safest investments globally because they are backed by the full faith and credit of the US government.
Statement I is incorrect: Even in a case of a default by the U.S. government, U.S. Treasury bondholders retain their legal right to payment. A default would generally cause delays or restructuring but would not cancel bondholder claims. The U.S. government remains legally obligated to repay its debts, and investors can seek legal remedies, though enforcement is complex for sovereign debt. If the government misses payments, both American and foreign bondholders can sue in U.S. courts, such as district courts or the U.S. Court of Federal Claims, to enforce their claims.
Statement II is correct: US Treasury Bonds are not backed by physical assets like gold, land, or commodities. Instead, their value rests on the trust and faith in the US government’s financial stability and its ability to repay debts through taxation and economic growth. The US dollar’s status as the world’s re-serve currency further reinforces this trust, but there are no tangible assets pledged against US debt.
Additional insight:
U.S. Treasury Bonds (T-Bonds) are long-term debt securities issued by the U.S. government with maturities of 20 to 30 years. They are considered low-risk investments as they are backed by the "full faith and credit" of the U.S. government. T-Bonds offer fixed interest payments semi-annually and are used for funding government operations, defense, and development projects. As of February 2025, the U.S. debt stands at approximately $36 trillion, equivalent to 124% of GDP. It arises from budget deficits when spending exceeds revenue. The debt is financed primarily through Treasury securities and is not backed by hard assets but by the government’s ability to tax and borrow. Persistent deficits, rising interest costs, and mandatory spending on programs like Social Security and Medicare pose long-term fiscal challenges.
UPSC 2024Polity · Schedules
Q180. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992, amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Eighth Schedule contains languages recognised by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages, but presently, there are 22. They are Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992 Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003. Oriya was renamed as ‘Odia’ by the 96th Amendment Act of 2011.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
171
2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
172
2024
(b) 2 only
173
2024
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
174
2024
(d) All four
175
2024
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
176
2024
(d) 1, 2 and 3
177
2024
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
178
2024
(d) 1 and 3 only
179
2024
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
180
2024
(a) 1, 2 and 3
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.