3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q111. Consider the following statements: Statement-1: There is instability and a worsening security situation in the Sahel region. Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: The Sahel region has been experiencing escalating instability and poor security situation due to a combination of factors, including violent extremism, weak governance, climate change, and displacement crises. Terrorist groups such as Jama’at Nusrat al-Islam wal-Muslimin (JNIM) and Islamic State Sahel Province (IS Sahel) have expanded their influence, leading to widespread violence and insecurity across countries like Mali, Burkina Faso, and Niger.
Statement II is correct: Over the last three years, the African Sahel region has witnessed a wave of coups d’état in seven countries that extend from Guinea on the Atlantic Ocean to Sudan on the Red Sea. Five military coups succeeded in five countries, in Mali, Burkina Faso, Guinea, Niger, and Gabon, while three other nations--Tunisia, Chad, and Sudan--had constitutional coups. These coups have further destabilized the region by weakening governance structures and creating power vacuums that terrorist groups have exploited. The coups disrupted counterterrorism efforts, weakened state institutions, and led to the withdrawal of foreign military support (e.g., France’s Operation Barkhane), all of which have emboldened extremist groups to expand their activities. Thus, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I.
UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q112. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: The European Parliament recently approved the Net-Zero Industry Act (NZIA) to bolster EU production in technologies needed for decarbonization. The "Net-Zero Industry Act", sets a target for Europe to produce 40% of its annual deployment needs in net-zero technologies by 2030, based on National Energy and Climate Plans (NECPs).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The European Union aims to be carbon-neutral by 2050, not 2040, an economy with net-zero greenhouse gas emissions. By 2040, the EU aims to reduce net greenhouse gas emissions by 90% compared to 1990 levels, as part of its interim climate goals. This objective is at the heart of the European Green Deal, and is a legally binding target thanks to the European Climate Law.
UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q113. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries. Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Venezuela is an example of a petrostate, where the government is highly dependent on fossil fuel income, power is concentrated, and corruption is widespread. Petrostates are vulnerable to what economists call Dutch disease, in which a government develops an unhealthy dependence on natural resource exports to the detriment of other sectors.
Statement I is incorrect: While Venezuela has shown modest economic growth in recent years, it is far from achieving a full recovery from its prolonged economic crisis. Poverty, hyperinflation, and deteriorating public services persist, and millions of Venezuelans continue to emigrate due to poor living conditions and political instability. As of 2025, more than 7.7 million Venezuelans have fled the country, making it one of the largest refugee crises in the world.
Statement II is correct: Venezuela has the largest amount of oil reserves in the world with more than 300 billion barrels in reserve. Saudi Arabia has the second-largest amount of oil re-serves in the world with 297.5 billion barrels.
UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q114. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization: 1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations. 2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis. 3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is an independent global non-profit organisation committed to improving toilet and sanitation conditions world-wide. It was founded in 2001. It is not an agency of the United Nations but it was granted consultative status with the United Nations Economic and Social Council in 2013.
Statement 2 is correct: Through its initiatives, such as World Toilet Day, World Toilet Summit, World Toilet College and SaniShop, WTO continues to mobilise an international network of partners, supporters, donors, governments and international organisations to advocate for effective sanitation policies to ensure health, dignity and well-being for everyone, everywhere. The World Toilet Summit and World Toilet Day were launched in 2001, and the World Toilet College was introduced in 2005 to address sanitation challenges through education and training.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The main focus of the organisation is to continue to build the global sanitation movement through collaborative action. The WTO’s primary focus is on advocacy, education, and capacity building rather than directly granting funds. It provides a platform for stakeholders to collaborate and exchange knowledge but does not primarily act as a funding body.
UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q115. Which one of the following is the correct description of "100 Million Farmers"?
Explanation
The "100 Million Farmers" initiative, spearheaded by the World Economic Forum, aims to revolutionize global food systems by encouraging sustainable agricultural practices. Its key goals include achieving net-zero carbon emissions, improving biodiversity, and strengthening farmers’ resilience to the effects of climate change. The platform unites diverse stakeholders--such as businesses, governments, farmers, international organizations, and innovators--to collaboratively advance this transformation. By prioritizing regenerative agriculture and climate adaptation strategies, the initiative seeks to help farmers transition to sustainable practices through innovative financial models and partnerships. It also aims to position food systems and farmers at the forefront of global efforts to address climate and environmental challenges, aligning with broader sustainability objectives.
UPSC 2024Geography · Climatology
Q116. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Fig.: Heat budget of the earth Statement-I is incorrect: The atmosphere is primarily heated by terrestrial radiation, which is the longwave radiation emitted by Earth’s surface after it absorbs solar radiation. While the atmosphere does absorb some direct solar radiation, it is the outgoing longwave radiation from the Earth’s surface (which gets trapped by greenhouse gases) that plays a major role in warming the atmosphere. From the diagram above, 65 units out of 100 units of heat are absorbed by the atmosphere in the form of longwave radiation. Thus terrestrial radiation is the major cause behind the heating of the atmosphere. Statement-II is correct: The longwave radiation is absorbed by atmospheric gases, particularly by carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases. It is mainly because their molecular structure allows them to vibrate and absorb infrared energy emitted by the Earth’s surface.
Additional insight:
Without the natural greenhouse effect, the Earth’s average temperature would fall from 15°C to -18°C. This drop would make the planet too cold for most living things. Oceans would freeze, covering large areas with ice. Farming would fail, causing food shortages. Many animals and plants would die be-cause they cannot survive in such cold conditions. The green-house effect helps trap heat in the atmosphere. It keeps the Earth’s temperature stable. This warmth allows liquid water to exist and supports plants, animals, and people. Without it, Earth would not be a habitable planet.
UPSC 2024Geography · Climatology
Q117. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The troposphere is the low-ermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator.
Statement 2 is correct: At the equator, strong convectional currents form due to intense solar heating. These currents carry heat and moisture to great heights, pushing the troposphere upwards and increasing its thickness.
Statement 2 explains Statement 1: The greater thickness of the troposphere at the equator (Statement-I) is due to strong convectional currents (Statement-II). Intense solar heating at the equator causes air to rise, creating powerful convection currents that push the tropopause higher, expanding the troposphere. In contrast, weaker convection at the poles, due to minimal solar heating, results in a thinner troposphere.
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q118. The organisms "Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater" are:
Explanation
The organisms Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond Skater are all insects. They belong to the class Insecta within the phylum Arthropoda. Cicadas are insects belonging to the order Hemiptera. They are known for their loud, distinctive calls and long life cycles with some species spending years underground as nymphs before emerging as adults. Froghoppers are also insects in the order Hemiptera. They are known for their jumping ability and the foam-like "cuckoo spit" produced by their nymphs. Pond skaters (also called water striders) are insects in the order Hemiptera. They are known for their ability to walk on water due to surface tension and their hydrophobic legs. (a) Cicada (b) Froghopper (c) Pond skater Fig: (a) Cicada, (b) Froghopper, and (c) Pond skater
Exam tip:
Froghopper, Association: Has "hopper" in its name implies jumping. Similar to grasshopper, planthopper. Pond skater, Association: Seen gliding over water surface. Thin-legged, fast-moving -- does not sink. You’d recall this from schoolbooks or ponds. If it hops, skates, or buzzes-- it’s almost always an insect.
UPSC 2024Art and Culture · Culture in India
Q119. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO: 1. Shantiniketan 2. Rani-ki-Vav 3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas 4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya How many of the above properties were included in 2023?
Explanation
Shantiniketan located in West Bengal is the home of Rabindranath Tagore’s Visva-Bharati University. It was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in September 2023 for its cultural and educational significance. Santiniketan which means ‘abode of peace’ started taking shape in 1901, and it was this place Tagore later put up the foundations of Visva Bharati University. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas: The Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas locatd in Karnataka, include the Hoysala temples at Belur, Halebid, and Somnathapura. These temples were inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in September 2023 for their exceptional architecture and artistry. The shrines are characterized by hyper-real sculptures and stone carvings that cover the entire architectural surface, a circumambulatory platform, a large-scale sculptural gallery, a multi-tiered frieze, and sculptures of the Sala legend. Other sites:
Rani-ki-Vav located in Gujarat is an 11th-century stepwell known for its intricate architecture and sculptures. These stepwells are a distinctive form of subterranean water resource and storage systems on the Indian subcontinent, and have been constructed since the 3rd millennium BC. It was included in UNESCO WHS list in 2014. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya is one of the four holy sites related to the life of the Lord Buddha, and particularly to the attainment of Enlightenment. The first temple was built by Emperor Asoka in the 3rd century B.C., and the present temple dates from the 5th or 6th centuries. It was included in the UNESCO WHS list in 2002.
UPSC 2024Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q120. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements: 1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised. 3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (formerly the National Land Record Modernization Programme) was revamped into a Central Sector Scheme from April 1, 2016, with full funding (100 %) provided by the Central Government for its implementation.
Statement 2 is correct: A major objective of DILRMP is the dig-itization of cadastral maps to improve land record transparency. Cadastral maps show land boundaries and ownership details at a detailed level and are crucial for modern land administration.
Statement 3 is correct: To address linguistic barriers, the government, with technical support from C-DAC Pune, has initiated the transliteration of land records into any of the 22 languages listed in Schedule VIII of the Constitution. As of February 2025, 17 States and Union Territories have adopted transliteration tools for their land records under the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP).
Additional insight:
The Digital India Land Record Modernization Programme (DILRMP) was earlier known as the National Land Record Modernization Programme (NLRMP). It was launched in 2008 by the Government of India under the Ministry of Rural Development. The main purpose of the scheme is to digitize and modernize land records. It also aims to develop a centralized land record management system for better transparency and efficiency. Other focus areas of Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP) are computerizing Record of Rights, digitizing cadastral maps to enhance transparency and reduce disputes, integrating textual Record of Rights with spatial cadastral maps, and establishing state-level data centers for efficient land record management. Complementing this, the SVAMITVA Scheme (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) aims to improve rural land governance by providing official property documentation to rural owners through drone and GIS-based land demarcation. This initiative facilitates property monetization, access to bank loans, dispute resolution, and comprehensive village-level planning.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
111
2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
112
2024
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
113
2024
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
114
2024
(a) 2 only
115
2024
(a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
116
2024
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
117
2024
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
118
2024
(c) Insects
119
2024
(b) Only two
120
2024
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.