Q2731. Which of the following events was not a part of Harsha’s military campaigns?
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Q2732. Which of the following is the odd one out with respect to the grounds of disqualification for a member of Parliament under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, as opposed to the Constitutional provisions?
Explanation
Disqualifications for members of Parliament are derived from both the Constitution and the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Holding an office of profit, being of unsound mind, or being an insolvent are constitutional grounds. In contrast, being punished for social crimes like untouchability, dowry, or sati is a statutory ground under the 1951 Act. This makes it distinct.
Q2733. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Russian Industrial Region | Primary Characteristic/Resource |
|---|---|
| A. Ural Region | i. Massive coal reserves |
| B. Volga Region | ii. Rich metallic minerals but traditionally deficient in coal |
| C. Kuzbas Region | iii. Hydroelectricity and inland waterway transport |
| D. Moscow-Tula Region | iv. Largest market and historical skilled labour centre |
Explanation
Russian industrial regions are defined by specific local advantages such as the Ural region’s rich metallic minerals and the Volga’s hydroelectric power. The Kuzbas is famous for its massive coal reserves, while the Moscow-Tula area serves as a historical center for skilled labor and market access. These regional specializations allowed Russia to develop a diverse and strategically distributed manufacturing base.
Q2734. Which of the following accurately defines the concept of ‘Land Ceiling’ in the context of Indian agricultural reforms?
Explanation
In the context of Indian agricultural reforms, a land ceiling refers to the statutory maximum limit on the amount of land an individual or family can legally hold. This policy was designed to reduce the concentration of land ownership among a few wealthy individuals and facilitate the redistribution of surplus land to landless laborers and marginal farmers.
Q2735. Consider the following statements regarding the cooperation of Amber and Marwar with the Mughals:
I. Raja Bharmal of Amber was the first Rajput ruler to enter into a matrimonial alliance with Akbar.
II. Mirza Raja Jai Singh served as a key military commander under Aurangzeb against Shivaji.
III. Maharaja Jaswant Singh of Marwar consistently supported Aurangzeb during the Mughal war of succession.
IV. The Kachwahas of Amber were granted high mansabs in the Mughal court.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
I. Raja Bharmal of Amber was the first Rajput ruler to enter into a matrimonial alliance with Akbar.
II. Mirza Raja Jai Singh served as a key military commander under Aurangzeb against Shivaji.
III. Maharaja Jaswant Singh of Marwar consistently supported Aurangzeb during the Mughal war of succession.
IV. The Kachwahas of Amber were granted high mansabs in the Mughal court.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Explanation
While several Rajput states cooperated with the Mughals, Maharaja Jaswant Singh of Marwar had a complex relationship with the imperial throne. During the war of succession, he initially supported Dara Shikoh against Aurangzeb at the Battle of Dharmat. This inconsistent support highlights the political friction between the Rathores and Aurangzeb, unlike the more stable alliances maintained by the Amber rulers.
Q2736. Which of the following represents the correct chronological sequence of the rulers of the Pushyabhuti dynasty?
Explanation
The Pushyabhuti dynasty rose to prominence in Thanesar. Adityavardhana was an early ruler, followed by the powerful Prabhakaravardhana, who assumed imperial titles. After his death, his elder son Rajyavardhana ascended the throne but was soon killed by Sasanka. Harshavardhana then took over, eventually shifting the capital to Kannauj and establishing a vast empire across most of northern India.
Q2737. Consider the following statements regarding the Lok Sabha:
I. The maximum seats allotted to the states in the Lok Sabha is 530.
II. The representatives of the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.
III. The President can still nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.
IV. Readjustment of allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha is currently frozen until the relevant figures for the first census taken after the year 2026 are published.
V. A person must be at least 25 years of age to contest an election for the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
I. The maximum seats allotted to the states in the Lok Sabha is 530.
II. The representatives of the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.
III. The President can still nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.
IV. Readjustment of allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha is currently frozen until the relevant figures for the first census taken after the year 2026 are published.
V. A person must be at least 25 years of age to contest an election for the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Explanation
The maximum number of seats for states in the Lok Sabha is 530. Union Territories representatives are directly elected, and the age requirement is 25. Seats are currently frozen based on census data until 2026. However, the President no longer nominates Anglo-Indian members due to recent amendments. Therefore, the statement claiming that this nomination power still exists is factually incorrect.
Q2738. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for the historical emergence of the Ural region as a major industrial hub in Russia?
Explanation
The Ural region emerged as a powerhouse in the Russian industrial landscape primarily because of its exceptional mineral wealth. It contains significant deposits of iron ore, copper, nickel, and various other metallic minerals. These resources provided the essential raw materials for heavy engineering and metallurgical industries, allowing the region to become a vital hub for steel production and military manufacturing.
Q2739. Which of the following represents the most appropriate chronological sequence of major land reform policies as they were conceptually phased and implemented in India post-independence?
Explanation
Post-independence land reforms followed a logical sequence to restructure rural society. The process began with the abolition of intermediaries like Zamindars. This was followed by tenancy reforms to protect tillers. Later, land ceilings were introduced to redistribute surplus holdings. Finally, the consolidation of holdings was emphasized to amalgamate fragmented plots into compact blocks for better efficiency and mechanization.
Q2740. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement I: Aurangzeb’s imposition of the Jizya tax in 1679 was peacefully accepted by all Rajput states.
Statement II: Maharana Raj Singh of Mewar strongly protested against the reimposition of Jizya by writing a letter to Aurangzeb.
Statement I: Aurangzeb’s imposition of the Jizya tax in 1679 was peacefully accepted by all Rajput states.
Statement II: Maharana Raj Singh of Mewar strongly protested against the reimposition of Jizya by writing a letter to Aurangzeb.
Explanation
The imposition of the Jizya tax by Aurangzeb in 1679 was met with significant resistance from various Rajput rulers. Maharana Raj Singh of Mewar notably sent a strongly worded letter of protest, arguing that the tax was discriminatory and contrary to the principles of fair governance. This act of defiance signaled a major breakdown in the long-standing Mughal-Rajput political cooperation.Answer key for these questions
| Q | Correct answer |
|---|---|
| 2731 | (d) The decisive victory over the Chalukya king Pulakeshin II at the Narmada |
| 2732 | (d) Being punished for preaching social crimes like untouchability, dowry, and sati |
| 2733 | (a) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv |
| 2734 | (d) Fixing a statutory maximum limit on the quantum of agricultural land that an individual or a family can hold. |
| 2735 | (b) III only |
| 2736 | (b) Adityavardhana, Prabhakaravardhana, Rajyavardhana, Harshavardhana |
| 2737 | (b) III only |
| 2738 | (b) Its vast deposits of iron ore and various other metallic minerals |
| 2739 | (b) Abolition of Intermediaries Tenancy Reforms Land Ceilings Consolidation of Holdings |
| 2740 | (b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. |
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This page has 9654 practice MCQs on the RAS Prelims syllabus. Each has the correct answer, and most have an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation. Practise one chapter at a time, note the facts you got wrong and revise them. Repeat the chapter after a few days.
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No. These are practice questions written for the RAS Prelims syllabus. They follow the pattern the exam uses: factual questions, statement-based questions, match-the-list and assertion-reason.