Q531. Which one of the following is considered an abuse of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
Indian Polity and Governance: RAS Prelims MCQs
944 RAS Prelims practice MCQs on Indian polity and governance are on this page, in 12 chapters. They cover the framing of the Constitution, the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, the Directive Principles, the Union executive, Parliament and the judiciary, Union-State relations, emergency provisions, local government, constitutional bodies, public policy and the vigilance and accountability institutions. Each question has an answer and an explanation.
Practice questions based on the RPSC RAS Prelims syllabus. They follow the exam pattern but are not past-paper questions.
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Q532. Consider the following statements regarding the Basic Structure Doctrine:
I. It was propounded in the Golaknath case (1967).
II. It states that the Parliament cannot alter the basic features of the Constitution.
III. The Supreme Court has provided an exhaustive list of what constitutes the basic structure.
IV. Judicial Review is considered a part of the basic structure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
I. It was propounded in the Golaknath case (1967).
II. It states that the Parliament cannot alter the basic features of the Constitution.
III. The Supreme Court has provided an exhaustive list of what constitutes the basic structure.
IV. Judicial Review is considered a part of the basic structure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
The Basic Structure Doctrine was propounded in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), not Golaknath. It prevents Parliament from altering the Constitution’s core features. While the court has identified several features, like judicial review, as part of this structure, it has not provided an exhaustive or final list. This allows the doctrine to evolve through various judicial interpretations over different periods.
Q533. Which of the following is an exception to the rule of Locus Standi in Indian judicial proceedings?
Explanation
Traditionally, the rule of locus standi requires that only a person whose rights are violated can move the court. Public Interest Litigation serves as a major exception to this rule. It allows any public-spirited citizen or organization to file a petition on behalf of those who, due to poverty or disability, cannot approach the court for legal redressal themselves.
Q534. The Contempt of Courts Act currently in force in India was enacted in which year?
Explanation
The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, is the current legislation governing contempt proceedings in India. It was enacted to define and limit the powers of certain courts in punishing for contempt and to regulate their procedure. The Act categorizes contempt into civil and criminal types, providing a legal framework to balance judicial authority with the right to free and fair criticism.
Q535. Consider the following statements regarding Contempt of Court:
I. Contempt of court is categorized into civil contempt and criminal contempt.
II. Civil contempt means willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order or writ of a court.
III. Criminal contempt includes any act which scandalizes or lowers the authority of any court.
IV. Innocent publication and distribution of matter is a valid defense against contempt.
V. Fair and accurate report of a judicial proceeding constitutes criminal contempt.
Which of the above statements are correct?
I. Contempt of court is categorized into civil contempt and criminal contempt.
II. Civil contempt means willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order or writ of a court.
III. Criminal contempt includes any act which scandalizes or lowers the authority of any court.
IV. Innocent publication and distribution of matter is a valid defense against contempt.
V. Fair and accurate report of a judicial proceeding constitutes criminal contempt.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Contempt is divided into civil and criminal categories. Civil contempt involves willful disobedience of court orders, while criminal contempt includes acts that scandalize the court. Defenses include innocent publication or accurate reporting. However, a fair and accurate report of a judicial proceeding is specifically protected and does not constitute contempt, making the final statement in the question incorrect and false.
Q536. The power of the Supreme Court to punish for contempt of itself is derived from which Article of the Constitution?
Explanation
Article 129 of the Constitution declares the Supreme Court to be a court of record. As a consequence of this status, it possesses all the powers of such a court, including the inherent power to punish for contempt of itself. This authority is essential for maintaining the dignity, majesty, and authority of the highest court in the Indian judicial system.
Q537. Arrange the following steps involved in the removal of a Supreme Court judge in the correct chronological order:
I. A removal motion signed by the requisite number of members is given to the Speaker/ Chairman.
II. The Speaker/Chairman forms a three-member committee to investigate the charges.
III. The motion is passed by a special majority of each House of Parliament.
IV. The President passes an order removing the judge.
V. The committee submits its report stating the judge is guilty of misbehaviour or incapacity.
Select the correct order:
I. A removal motion signed by the requisite number of members is given to the Speaker/ Chairman.
II. The Speaker/Chairman forms a three-member committee to investigate the charges.
III. The motion is passed by a special majority of each House of Parliament.
IV. The President passes an order removing the judge.
V. The committee submits its report stating the judge is guilty of misbehaviour or incapacity.
Select the correct order:
Explanation
The removal process begins with a motion signed by 100 Lok Sabha or 50 Rajya Sabha members. The Speaker or Chairman then appoints a three-member investigation committee. If the committee finds the judge guilty, the motion is debated and must be passed by a special majority in both Houses. Finally, the President issues an order for the judge’s official removal.
Q538. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Supreme Court has held that truth is a valid defence in contempt proceedings.
Statement II: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was amended in 2006 to explicitly include truth as a defence provided it is in public interest and bona fide.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I: The Supreme Court has held that truth is a valid defence in contempt proceedings.
Statement II: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was amended in 2006 to explicitly include truth as a defence provided it is in public interest and bona fide.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Previously, truth was not an accepted defense in contempt proceedings. However, following the 2006 amendment to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, the law explicitly allows truth as a valid defense. This is applicable only if the statement is made in the public interest and is bona fide. This change ensures that honest and justified criticism is not unfairly penalized.
Q539. Match List I with List II:
Choose the correct code:
| Type of Contempt Action | Category |
|---|---|
| A. Wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court | i. Criminal Contempt |
| B. Prejudicing or interfering with the due course of any judicial proceeding | ii. Civil Contempt |
| C. Wilful disobedience of a court decree | iii. Criminal Contempt |
| D. Lowering the authority of a court | iv. Civil Contempt |
Explanation
Civil contempt involves willful disobedience of a court’s judgment or a breach of an undertaking. Criminal contempt includes acts that scandalize the court, lower its authority, or interfere with the due course of judicial proceedings. By matching these definitions, wilful breach and disobedience fall under civil contempt, while prejudicing proceedings or lowering judicial authority are categorized as criminal contempt.
Q540. In the context of judicial relations between the Supreme Court and High Courts, which of the following is a correct statement?
Explanation
Under Article 139A, the Supreme Court has the power to transfer cases pending before one High Court to another High Court. It can also withdraw cases pending in High Courts to itself if they involve substantially the same questions of law. High Courts are not administratively subordinate to the Supreme Court but are part of an integrated, yet independent, judicial hierarchy.Answer key for these questions
| Q | Correct answer |
|---|---|
| 531 | (d) Filing a petition by a political rival purely for political gain or a personal private vendetta. |
| 532 | (a) II and IV only |
| 533 | (b) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) |
| 534 | (b) 1971 |
| 535 | (a) I, II, III and IV only |
| 536 | (a) Article 129 |
| 537 | (a) I, II, V, III, IV |
| 538 | (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. |
| 539 | (a) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii |
| 540 | (c) The Supreme Court can transfer a case pending in one High Court to another High Court. |
Key facts from Indian Polity and Governance
- The RPSC syllabus lists the Indian Constitution, the political system and governance, with public policy, vigilance and accountability bodies as part of the paper.
- Article-number questions are the commonest: for example Article 356 for President’s Rule, Article 324 for the Election Commission and Article 243K for the State Election Commission.
- Statement and assertion-reason questions test exceptions, so learn each provision with its limits.
- Questions on bodies ask for appointing authority, removing authority, tenure and the body to which the report goes.
- The Rajasthan-specific part of polity is on a separate page, with its own 8 chapters.
Frequently asked questions
How many RAS Prelims practice MCQs are there on Indian Polity and Governance?
This page has 944 practice MCQs on Indian Polity and Governance. Each has the correct answer, and most have an explanation.
Which chapters does the Indian polity set cover?
Twelve chapters: framing of the Constitution, Preamble and citizenship; Fundamental Rights; DPSP and Fundamental Duties; Union executive; Parliament; Union judiciary; Union-State relations; emergency provisions; local government; constitutional and statutory bodies; public policy and citizen charter; and vigilance and accountability.
Is polity part of the RAS Prelims syllabus?
Yes. The RPSC syllabus for General Knowledge includes the Indian Constitution, political system and governance, together with the political and administrative system of Rajasthan, which is covered on the separate Rajasthan polity page.
How should I revise polity for RAS Prelims?
Make a table of articles, bodies and amendments. Attempt each chapter, read the explanation for every miss and note the article number and the exception. Repeat the chapter after a few days, as polity facts are easy to confuse.