Q481. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the judicial review of decisions made under the Tenth Schedule?
Indian Polity and Governance: RAS Prelims MCQs
944 RAS Prelims practice MCQs on Indian polity and governance are on this page, in 12 chapters. They cover the framing of the Constitution, the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, the Directive Principles, the Union executive, Parliament and the judiciary, Union-State relations, emergency provisions, local government, constitutional bodies, public policy and the vigilance and accountability institutions. Each question has an answer and an explanation.
Practice questions based on the RPSC RAS Prelims syllabus. They follow the exam pattern but are not past-paper questions.
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Q482. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 made a significant change to the anti-defection law. What was the primary change regarding group defections?
Explanation
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 significantly tightened the anti-defection law. Its primary change was the omission of the ‘split’ provision. Previously, if one-third of a party’s members broke away, it was not considered defection. By removing this exception, the amendment made it harder for groups of legislators to defect, thereby further promoting political stability within the legislative body.
Q483. Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of the Tenth Schedule:
I. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party within six months of taking their seat.
II. The presiding officer decides the questions of disqualification of members under the Tenth Schedule.
III. The anti-defection law aims to prevent political defections motivated by the lure of office or material benefits.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
I. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party within six months of taking their seat.
II. The presiding officer decides the questions of disqualification of members under the Tenth Schedule.
III. The anti-defection law aims to prevent political defections motivated by the lure of office or material benefits.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Explanation
The anti-defection law empowers the presiding officer of the House to decide on member disqualifications. Its main objective is to prevent opportunistic defections driven by the desire for office or other benefits. However, a nominated member is only disqualified if they join a political party after the six-month grace period has ended. Therefore, only the second and third statements are correct.
Q484. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its Members?
Explanation
Article 105 of the Indian Constitution defines the powers, privileges, and immunities of the Houses of Parliament and their members. These privileges are essential for the effective functioning of the legislature. They protect members from external interference and ensure they can perform their duties without fear. This article provides the constitutional foundation for both collective and individual parliamentary rights.
Q485. Given below are two statements, one labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A member of Parliament enjoys absolute freedom of speech inside the House and is not liable to any court proceedings for anything said in the Parliament.
Reason (R): This freedom of speech is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and the rules regulating the procedure of Parliament, such as not discussing the conduct of judges except upon a motion for removal.
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A member of Parliament enjoys absolute freedom of speech inside the House and is not liable to any court proceedings for anything said in the Parliament.
Reason (R): This freedom of speech is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and the rules regulating the procedure of Parliament, such as not discussing the conduct of judges except upon a motion for removal.
Explanation
Members of Parliament enjoy absolute freedom of speech within the House, shielding them from legal proceedings regarding their statements. However, this right is not entirely unlimited; it must be exercised according to constitutional provisions and parliamentary rules. For example, discussing a judge’s conduct is generally prohibited. Thus, both statements are true, and the reason correctly explains the scope.
Q486. Read the following statements regarding parliamentary privileges carefully:
Statement I: Members of Parliament cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session.
Statement II: This privilege of freedom from arrest applies to both civil and criminal cases.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Statement I: Members of Parliament cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session.
Statement II: This privilege of freedom from arrest applies to both civil and criminal cases.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Explanation
Members of Parliament are privileged from arrest for a period including 40 days before and after a session. However, this immunity is strictly limited to civil cases. It does not provide any protection against arrest in criminal cases or under preventive detention laws. Therefore, while the first statement about the time frame is correct, the second statement regarding criminal cases.
Q487. Consider the following statements regarding collective and individual parliamentary privileges:
I. Parliament has the right to publish its reports, debates, and proceedings and also the right to prohibit others from publishing them.
II. Parliament can exclude strangers from its proceedings and hold secret sittings.
III. Parliament can punish members as well as outsiders for breach of its privileges or its contempt.
IV. A member can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when Parliament is in session.
V. The privileges of Parliament are fully codified in a comprehensive law enacted by Parliament.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
I. Parliament has the right to publish its reports, debates, and proceedings and also the right to prohibit others from publishing them.
II. Parliament can exclude strangers from its proceedings and hold secret sittings.
III. Parliament can punish members as well as outsiders for breach of its privileges or its contempt.
IV. A member can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when Parliament is in session.
V. The privileges of Parliament are fully codified in a comprehensive law enacted by Parliament.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Explanation
Parliamentary privileges include the right to publish proceedings, exclude strangers, and punish for contempt. Members can also refuse to testify while the House is in session. However, these privileges are not yet fully codified in a single law. They continue to be based on constitutional provisions, common law, and conventions. Therefore, the statement claiming that they are fully codified is.
Q488. Which of the following authorities or individuals does NOT enjoy the privileges of Parliament?
Explanation
Parliamentary privileges are designed to protect those who participate in the proceedings of the Houses. This includes members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, as well as the Attorney General and ministers who can speak in the House. Although the President is an integral part of Parliament, they do not enjoy these specific privileges, as they do not participate.
Q489. Identify the correct pair distinguishing between a breach of privilege and contempt of the House.
Explanation
A breach of privilege specifically refers to the violation of the established rights and immunities of individual members or the House. In contrast, contempt of the House is a broader concept. It includes any act that obstructs the House in its duties or lowers its dignity and authority. Understanding this distinction is vital for interpreting how Parliament protects its institutional integrity.
Q490. Match the items in List I with those in List II:
| Stage of Legislative Process | Action Taken |
|---|---|
| A. First Reading | i. Detailed scrutiny and clause-by-clause consideration of the bill |
| B. Second Reading | ii. Introduction of the bill and publication in the Gazette |
| C. Third Reading | iii. Debate confined to the acceptance or rejection of the bill as a whole |
| D. Assent stage | iv. The President gives or withholds consent, or returns the bill |
Explanation
The legislative process consists of several key stages. The first reading involves the introduction and publication of the bill. The second reading is where detailed scrutiny and clause-by-clause consideration happen. The third reading focuses on whether to accept or reject the bill entirely. Finally, the assent stage involves the President giving or withholding consent. Matching these actions outlines the lawmaking cycle.Answer key for these questions
| Q | Correct answer |
|---|---|
| 481 | (b) The Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan case ruled that the decision of the Speaker is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fides or perversity. |
| 482 | (d) It omitted the provision that provided an exception from disqualification in case of a ‘split’ by one-third of members. |
| 483 | (b) II and III only |
| 484 | (c) Article 105 |
| 485 | (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. |
| 486 | (a) Statement I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect. |
| 487 | (b) V only |
| 488 | (c) The President of India |
| 489 | (d) Breach of privilege - Violation of specific rights of members; Contempt of the House - Any act lowering the dignity or authority of the House |
| 490 | (a) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv |
Key facts from Indian Polity and Governance
- The RPSC syllabus lists the Indian Constitution, the political system and governance, with public policy, vigilance and accountability bodies as part of the paper.
- Article-number questions are the commonest: for example Article 356 for President’s Rule, Article 324 for the Election Commission and Article 243K for the State Election Commission.
- Statement and assertion-reason questions test exceptions, so learn each provision with its limits.
- Questions on bodies ask for appointing authority, removing authority, tenure and the body to which the report goes.
- The Rajasthan-specific part of polity is on a separate page, with its own 8 chapters.
Frequently asked questions
How many RAS Prelims practice MCQs are there on Indian Polity and Governance?
This page has 944 practice MCQs on Indian Polity and Governance. Each has the correct answer, and most have an explanation.
Which chapters does the Indian polity set cover?
Twelve chapters: framing of the Constitution, Preamble and citizenship; Fundamental Rights; DPSP and Fundamental Duties; Union executive; Parliament; Union judiciary; Union-State relations; emergency provisions; local government; constitutional and statutory bodies; public policy and citizen charter; and vigilance and accountability.
Is polity part of the RAS Prelims syllabus?
Yes. The RPSC syllabus for General Knowledge includes the Indian Constitution, political system and governance, together with the political and administrative system of Rajasthan, which is covered on the separate Rajasthan polity page.
How should I revise polity for RAS Prelims?
Make a table of articles, bodies and amendments. Attempt each chapter, read the explanation for every miss and note the article number and the exception. Repeat the chapter after a few days, as polity facts are easy to confuse.