Q411. What is the tenure of the Rajya Sabha as a legislative body?
Indian Polity and Governance: RAS Prelims MCQs
944 RAS Prelims practice MCQs on Indian polity and governance are on this page, in 12 chapters. They cover the framing of the Constitution, the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, the Directive Principles, the Union executive, Parliament and the judiciary, Union-State relations, emergency provisions, local government, constitutional bodies, public policy and the vigilance and accountability institutions. Each question has an answer and an explanation.
Practice questions based on the RPSC RAS Prelims syllabus. They follow the exam pattern but are not past-paper questions.
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Q412. Read the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha carefully:
Statement I: One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every second year.
Statement II: The retiring members of the Rajya Sabha are eligible for re-election and re-nomination any number of times.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Statement I: One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every second year.
Statement II: The retiring members of the Rajya Sabha are eligible for re-election and re-nomination any number of times.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Explanation
The Rajya Sabha ensures continuity through a staggered retirement system where one-third of its members retire every second year. This process prevents the entire House from becoming vacant at once. Furthermore, members who retire are eligible for re-election or re-nomination indefinitely. Both statements accurately describe the operational mechanics and membership flexibility that define the permanent nature of the house.
Q413. Consider the following statements regarding the election to the Rajya Sabha:
I. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
II. The representatives of Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose.
III. All Union Territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha.
IV. The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
I. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
II. The representatives of Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose.
III. All Union Territories are represented in the Rajya Sabha.
IV. The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Explanation
Rajya Sabha members are elected via proportional representation with a single transferable vote. Union Territory representatives are chosen by specially constituted electoral colleges. The Fourth Schedule manages seat allocations. However, not every Union Territory is represented in the Rajya Sabha; only those with their own legislative assemblies have representatives. Therefore, the statement claiming that all Union Territories are represented is incorrect.
Q414. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for the Rajya Sabha being designed as a permanent house?
Explanation
The permanent nature of the Rajya Sabha is vital for maintaining parliamentary continuity. Since it is not subject to dissolution, it can handle urgent legislative matters and fulfill constitutional obligations when the Lok Sabha is dissolved. This design prevents a total vacuum in the central legislative process. It ensures that the government remains accountable and the legislative function persists during elections.
Q415. Select the correct sequence of the passage of an ordinary bill through Parliament:
Explanation
An ordinary bill undergoes several distinct stages before becoming law. It begins with the first reading for introduction. The second reading involves detailed discussion and scrutiny. After the third reading, it is transmitted to the second House for a similar process. Finally, it requires the President’s assent. This sequence ensures comprehensive review and democratic consensus across both of the legislative houses.
Q416. Which of the following statements correctly describes an executive power of Parliament?
Explanation
Parliament exercises executive power primarily through the principle of collective responsibility. The Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, must maintain the confidence of the Lok Sabha to stay in power. If the House passes a no-confidence motion, the entire ministry must resign. This mechanism ensures that the executive remains directly accountable to the people’s representatives on a continuous basis.
Q417. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the financial powers of Parliament.
Explanation
Parliament holds ultimate authority over national finances in India. No tax can be levied and no expenditure can be incurred from the Consolidated Fund without parliamentary approval. The President does not have the power to authorize spending independently during normal times. Financial control is further maintained through audit reports and committees. Therefore, the claim regarding independent presidential authorization is factually incorrect.
Q418. If a No-Confidence Motion is successfully passed in the Lok Sabha, what is the immediate effect?
Explanation
A No-Confidence Motion is a powerful tool used by the Lok Sabha to test the government’s majority. If this motion is passed, it signifies that the House no longer trusts the executive. Consequently, the entire Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, must resign immediately. This reflects the core principle of parliamentary democracy where the executive is accountable to legislative authority.
Q419. What does the "constituent power" of Parliament specifically refer to?
Explanation
The constituent power of Parliament refers to its specific authority to amend the Constitution of India. Under Article 368, Parliament can add, vary, or repeal any provision of the basic law. This power is distinct from ordinary legislative power and requires special procedures. It allows the Constitution to evolve while ensuring that fundamental changes are made with significant parliamentary approval.
Q420. Match the items in List I with those in List II:
| Type of Motion | Purpose |
|---|---|
| A. Adjournment Motion | i. To call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance |
| B. Privilege Motion | ii. To censure the government for specific policies and actions |
| C. Censure Motion | iii. To draw attention to a breach of parliamentary privilege by a minister |
| D. Calling Attention Motion | iv. To draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance |
Explanation
Different parliamentary motions serve specific purposes in the legislative process. An adjournment motion addresses definite matters of urgent public importance. A privilege motion targets breaches of parliamentary rights by ministers. Censure motions are used to criticize specific government policies. Finally, a calling attention motion highlights urgent matters for a minister’s response. These tools facilitate accountability and transparency within the legislature.Answer key for these questions
| Q | Correct answer |
|---|---|
| 411 | (b) It is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. |
| 412 | (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. |
| 413 | (a) I, II and IV |
| 414 | (c) To maintain continuity in the parliamentary process and handle legislative work when the Lok Sabha is dissolved. |
| 415 | (b) First Reading Second Reading Third Reading Passage in second House Presidential Assent |
| 416 | (c) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. |
| 417 | (b) The President can authorize expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India without parliamentary approval during normal times. |
| 418 | (d) The entire Council of Ministers must resign. |
| 419 | (a) The power to amend the Constitution of India. |
| 420 | (a) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i |
Key facts from Indian Polity and Governance
- The RPSC syllabus lists the Indian Constitution, the political system and governance, with public policy, vigilance and accountability bodies as part of the paper.
- Article-number questions are the commonest: for example Article 356 for President’s Rule, Article 324 for the Election Commission and Article 243K for the State Election Commission.
- Statement and assertion-reason questions test exceptions, so learn each provision with its limits.
- Questions on bodies ask for appointing authority, removing authority, tenure and the body to which the report goes.
- The Rajasthan-specific part of polity is on a separate page, with its own 8 chapters.
Frequently asked questions
How many RAS Prelims practice MCQs are there on Indian Polity and Governance?
This page has 944 practice MCQs on Indian Polity and Governance. Each has the correct answer, and most have an explanation.
Which chapters does the Indian polity set cover?
Twelve chapters: framing of the Constitution, Preamble and citizenship; Fundamental Rights; DPSP and Fundamental Duties; Union executive; Parliament; Union judiciary; Union-State relations; emergency provisions; local government; constitutional and statutory bodies; public policy and citizen charter; and vigilance and accountability.
Is polity part of the RAS Prelims syllabus?
Yes. The RPSC syllabus for General Knowledge includes the Indian Constitution, political system and governance, together with the political and administrative system of Rajasthan, which is covered on the separate Rajasthan polity page.
How should I revise polity for RAS Prelims?
Make a table of articles, bodies and amendments. Attempt each chapter, read the explanation for every miss and note the article number and the exception. Repeat the chapter after a few days, as polity facts are easy to confuse.