97 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2020 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 51–60 of 97 questions
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UPSC 2020Science and Technology · Nanoscience and Nanotechnology
Q51. When reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements: 1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. 2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. 3. They can be used in biochemical sensors. 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Carbon nanotubes are cylindrical structures made of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. They possess exceptional strength, high electrical conductivity, and unique mechanical properties, making them promising materials for applications in electronics, materials science, and nanotechnology.
Statement 1 is correct: Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) have been widely researched for their role in drug delivery systems. Their unique hollow structure allows them to transport therapeutic molecules directly to targeted cells, improving treatment precision and effectiveness. Functionalization of CNTs enhances biocompatibility and minimizes toxicity.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Carbon nanotubes have applications in tissue engineering, including constructing artificial blood vessels. Their mechanical strength and ability to support cell growth make them useful for creating scaffolds that mimic natural capillaries, promoting tissue repair. However, UPSC in its official answer key has not given recognition to this development and marked statement 2 as incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct: Due to their exceptional electrical conductivity, carbon nanotubes are integral to the development of highly sensitive biochemical sensors. These sensors can detect specific biological molecules, contributing to advancements in diagnostics and monitoring technologies.
Statement 4 is correct: Multiple types of microbes, including bacteria and fungi, have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs). Thus carbon nanotubes are very much biodegradable in nature.
Exam tip:
For S2, The phrase can be made into artificial blood capillaries implies real-world medical application, not just lab potential. That’s an extreme generalization of a field still in early-stage trials. This is similar to wireless electricity transfer in Question 68, page 573. Hence more probably false.
UPSC 2020Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q52. The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometers long, with lasers shining between the craft." The experiment in question refers to
Explanation
Evolved LISA (eLISA) is a planned mission by the ESA for gravitational wave detection. It will detect minute distortions in space-time caused by gravitational waves. Lasers will shine between the spacecraft to measure changes in distance. Two "Daughter" spacecraft and a "Mother" spacecraft make up the eLISA mission. These will form a triangle orbit around the Sun. The two Daughter spacecraft will be joined to the Mother satellite, and the three satellites will form a precision interferometer by 1 million km long laser beams. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Voyager-2: A NASA spacecraft that studied Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. It was not intended for gravitational wave detection. New Horizons: The first mission to explore Pluto and the Kuiper Belt, focused on planetary exploration rather than detecting gravitational waves. LISA Pathfinder: It was the precursor mission of eLISA that successfully demonstrated the technology required for a space based gravitational wave observatory.
UPSC 2020Indian Economy · Inflation
Q53. Consider the following statements: 1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI). 2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does. 3. The Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: In India, food items make up a significant portion of the CPI, around 45%, reflecting the price changes consumers experience. In contrast, the WPI, which tracks wholesale prices, assigns a smaller share to food items, approximately 25-30%. The CPI measures the average change in prices paid by consumers for a basket of goods and services. Food is a significant component of household budgets, especially in developing economies, so it has a substantial weight in the CPI. The WPI, on the other hand, tracks the prices of goods at the wholesale level (i.e., prices received by producers or wholesalers).
Statement 2 is correct: The WPI focuses on measuring price changes in goods at the wholesale level and excludes services. While CPI includes both goods and services, such as healthcare, transportation, and education, which is a major difference between the two indices.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The RBI has not adopted the WPI as its key measure of inflation. The RBI uses the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as its primary gauge of inflation for monetary policy decisions. The CPI is considered a better indicator of the price pressures faced by consumers, which is what the RBI is most concerned about when setting interest rates.
UPSC 2020Polity · Systems of Government
Q54. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which:
Explanation
A Parliamentary System of Government is characterized by the executive (Government) being accountable to the legislature (Parliament). Its other key features generally include:
Collective Responsibility: The Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (Lower House in India). Motion of No Confidence: The government can be removed by the Parliament through a vote of no confidence. Executive from the Legislature: The Prime Minister and Ministers are drawn from the legislature and remain in office as long as they have its confidence.
UPSC 2020Polity · Systems of Government
Q55. A constitutional government by definition is a:
Explanation
A constitutional government is a system in which the powers of the government are limited by a constitution. This ensures that government actions are guided by established laws rather than arbitrary decisions. The core idea of a constitutional government is limited government, where authority is regulated, checked, and balanced by a legal framework.
UPSC 2020Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q56. With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements: 1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crops. 2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production. 3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased the production of rabi pulses has decreased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: In India, the important pulse crops grown in winter (rabi) are chickpea, lentil, lathyrus, field pea and kidney bean. However, green gram, black gram and cowpea are grown in both spring and rainy season. Black gram (Urad dal) can be cultivated in both kharif (monsoon) and rabi (winter) seasons in India, making it a versatile crop in the country’s agricultural cycle.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics (DES), the share of pulse production in 2018-19 was as follows: Tur (15.34%), Gram (43.29%), Moong (Green gram, 10.04%), Urad (Black gram, 13.93%), Lentil (6.67%), and other pulses (10%). Green gram alone does not account for nearly half of India’s total pulse production.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Over the past three decades, both kharif pulses and rabi pulses have experienced increased production due to improved agricultural practices, increased area under cultivation, and better support for pulse farming.
UPSC 2020Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q57. "The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop." Which one of the following is that crop?
Explanation
Option (a) is correct: Cotton is India’s most important fiber crop, accounting for about 25% of the world’s cotton production. Cotton growing condition requirements:
Temperature and climate: Cotton flourishes in a subtropical climate with optimal temperatures ranging from 21°C to 30°C. Rainfall: Cotton needs 50 to 100 cm of rainfall during its growing period, but excessive or waterlogged conditions can negatively affect its growth. Soil Type: Cotton grows best in light, well-drained, moisture-retaining soils, especially the black cotton soil of the Deccan Plateau, which has high moisture-retention capacity. Frost-Free Days: Requires at least 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine to complete its life cycle. Growing Season: It is a kharif crop and typically takes 6 to 8 months to mature Top Cotton Producing States: Gujarat > Maharashtra > Telangana > Andhra Pradesh > Rajasthan. Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
Jute: Requires high rainfall (150-200 cm) and humid weather, not subtropical conditions. Sugarcane: Requires higher rainfall (75-200 cm) and thrives mainly in tropical regions. Tea: Requires cool, humid conditions, heavy rainfall (150-300 cm), and acidic soils, unlike the drier conditions needed for cotton.
UPSC 2020Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q58. Consider the following minerals: 1. Bentonite 2. Chromite 3. Kyanite 4. Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?
Explanation
In India, minerals are classified as major minerals and minor minerals under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. Major minerals are those specified in the First Schedule of the Act and are under the regulatory control of the central government. Minor minerals are defined under Section 3(e) of the Act and are regulated by state governments.
Option (d) is correct: The following are Major minerals:
Chromite is an oxide mineral of chromium and iron and is the primary source for chromium. It is extensively used in metallurgy, refractory materials, and chemicals. Kyanite is a typically blue silicate mineral used in refractory and ceramic products. Sillimanite is an alumino-silicate mineral used in high-temperature ceramics and refractories. Bentonite is a type of clay formed from volcanic ash and is primarily used in drilling mud, binder, purifier, and absorbent applications. In India, bentonite is officially classified as a minor mineral.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q59. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?
Explanation
The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 has six schedules. Schedule VI mandates, ‘no person is allowed to cultivate a specified plant mentioned in schedule 6, except with a licence granted by the Chief WildLife Warden’. The plants mentioned in the sixth schedule includes:
Beddomes Cycad Blue Vanda Kuth Ladies slipper orchids Pitcher plant Red Vanda
Additional insight:
The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 has reduced the total number of schedules to four by - Reducing the number of schedules for specially protected animals to two (one for greater protection level), The Amendment has removed the schedule for vermin species, and The Amendment has inserted a new schedule for specimens listed in the Appendices under Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). Appendix I of CITES includes the world’s most endangered plants and animals.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q60. Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? 1. Construction of base road 2. Improvement of agricultural soil 3. Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Steel Slag, a by-product of steel making, is produced during the separation of the molten steel from impurities in steel-making furnaces. The slag occurs as a molten liquid melt and is a complex solution of silicates and oxides that solidi-fies upon cooling.
Statement 1 is correct: Steel slag is widely used as a base course material in road construction, providing a strong and durable foundation beneath asphalt roads, tracks, and paved surfaces. Its high strength, resistance to deformation, and excellent drainage properties enhance pavement longevity.
Statement 2 is correct: Steel slag can be used in the agricultural sector due to its ability to correct soil acidity. In fact, developed countries like Japan, the USA have taken the lead in making fertilisers using steel-making slag.
Statement 3 is correct: Additionally, it is utilized in the production of Portland slag cement (PSC), where it is blended with ordinary Portland cement to improve durability and resistance to chemical attacks. This not only enhances cement quality but also promotes sustainable construction by recycling industrial byproducts.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
51
2020
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
52
2020
(d) Evolved LISA
53
2020
(a) 1 and 2 only
54
2020
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
55
2020
(d) limited government
56
2020
(a) 1 only
57
2020
(a) Cotton
58
2020
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
59
2020
(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.
60
2020
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 97 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2020 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2020 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.