UPSC 2020 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

Option 1 is correct: Copper slag is a by-product obtained during smelting and refining of copper. The use of copper slag in cement and concrete provides potential environmental as well as economic benefits.

Option 2 is correct: Cold mix asphalt is produced by mixing unheated mineral aggregate with either emulsified bitumen or foamed bitumen. It is suitable for light to medium trafficked roads when used in base and surface courses.

Option 3 is correct: The Government has allowed the use of coir based geotextiles for construction of rural roads under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana in 2020. Options 4 and 5 are incorrect: Hot Mix Asphalt (HMA) is a combination of approximately 95% stone, sand, or gravel bound together by asphalt cement, a product of crude oil. The wide use of hot mix technology leads to environmental pollution as these plants emit a huge amount of greenhouse gases. Portland cement is a major CO₂ emitter.

Explanation

IAEA safeguards apply to nuclear reactors using imported uranium as part of India’s international agreements. These safeguards ensure that the imported fuel is strictly used for civilian purposes and not diverted for military use. However, not all nuclear reactors in India are placed under IAEA safeguards. Reactors using domestic uranium are not subject to these safeguards allowing flexibility for strategic programs. By keeping reactors using domestic uranium outside IAEA safeguards, India maintains the flexibility to support its strategic programs without external oversight. As of recent data, out of India’s 22 operational reactors, 14 are under IAEA safeguards because they utilize imported fuel.

Explanation

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic framework that ensures secure electronic transactions, authentication, and digital signatures. It involves the use of public and private keys, digital certificates, and certificate authorities to enable safe communication online. PKI plays a crucial role in areas such as e-governance, online banking, Aadhaar authentication, and cybersecurity. In India, the Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) oversees digital signature certificates (DSCs) and encryption technologies under the Information Technology Act, 2000, making PKI integral to the country’s digital security infrastructure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Short-term foreign debt is a major vulnerability during a financial crisis. When global confidence deteriorates, investors can pull their short-term funds out of emerging markets very quickly. This sudden outflow of capital can cause a currency crisis, sharp interest rate increases, and severe economic disruption. A lower reliance on such borrowings provides greater resilience.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Opening up to more foreign banks would lead to enhanced exposure to the global economy. While foreign banks can introduce advanced practices and enhance capital availability, they also increase India’s exposure to global financial shocks. During crises these banks often prioritize their home markets, reducing support to Indian operations and exacerbating credit shortages. Greater foreign bank presence may foster interconnectedness but does not guarantee immunity, potentially heightening India’s vulnerability to external disruptions.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Capital account convertibility means no restriction on the amount one can convert into foreign currency to enable one to acquire any foreign assets and vice versa. In case of a financial crisis it can create a situation of "Capital flight" where a foreign investor can withdraw all his money at once.

Explanation

Demand deposit accounts consist of funds held in a bank account from which deposited funds can be withdrawn at any time while a term deposit account restricts access for a predetermined time(Fixed deposits accounts, Recurring deposits accounts). Current accounts and savings accounts are demand deposits. Money = total currency with the public + demand deposits of the public with banks. When you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your demand deposit account, you’re simply changing the form of your money. You’re not changing the total amount of money in the economy. Before the withdrawal: You have Rs. 1,00,000 in your bank account, which is part of the money supply (specifically, it’s part of the deposit component of the money supply). After the withdrawal: You have Rs. 1,00,000 in cash. This cash is also part of the money supply (specifically, it’s part of the currency in circulation component). The money has just moved from one "pocket" of the money supply to another. The overall quantity of money remains the same.

Explanation

Interest Coverage Ratio is a financial metric used to assess a company’s ability to meet its interest obligations on its debt. It’s calculated as:

Interest Coverage Ratio = Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT) / Interest Expense Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The interest coverage ratio is a debt and profitability ratio used to determine how easily a company can pay interest on its outstanding debt. Banks use the ICR to assess the current financial health of a firm. A low ICR suggests the firm may face difficulties repaying interest on its loans, posing a higher risk to lenders. ICR trends can help banks foresee emerging risks. A declining ICR signals worsening financial health, hinting at future repayment challenges.

Statement 3 is incorrect: A higher ICR implies that the firm generates sufficient earnings to cover its interest expenses comfortably, which is favorable. Conversely, a low ICR indicates a firm’s weakened ability to service its debt.

Explanation

Expansionary Monetary Policy is also known as Ac-commodative Monetary Policy has its main objective to increase the money supply in the economy through several measures such as:

Lowering interest rates.

Reducing reserve requirements for banks.

Purchasing government securities by RBI The goal of expansionary policy is to stimulate economic growth by encouraging business activities and consumer spending, while also helping reduce unemployment.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the percentage of a bank’s net demand and time liabilities that must be maintained in the form of liquid assets, such as cash, gold, or government securities. Reducing the SLR allows banks to have more funds available for lending, thereby increasing the money supply in the economy. Hence RBI would cut and optimise the Statutory Liquidity Ratio.

Statement 2 is correct: Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate is the rate at which banks can borrow overnight funds from the RBI against approved government securities. Increasing the MSF rate makes borrowing from the RBI more expensive for banks, which could discourage lending and contract the money supply. Thus raising the MSF rate is contrary to expansionary policy goals.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Bank Rate is the rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks without any collateral. Repo Rate is rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks against government securities. Lowering these rates reduces the cost of borrowing for banks, encouraging them to lend more to businesses and consumers, thereby increasing the money supply. Hence, cutting the Bank Rate and Repo Rate is consistent with an expansionary monetary policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets based on the locally felt needs to be taken up in their Constituencies.

Statement 2 is correct: M.Ps are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15% of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5% for areas inhabited by S.T. population.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The released funds under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable i.e. if the money is not utilised, it gets carried to the next year subject to the fulfillment of certain criterion.

Statement 4 is correct: The district authority should visit and inspect at least 10% of the works every year. It is also expected to involve the MPs in such activities.

Explanation

Rural co-operatives include District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs), State Co-operative Banks (StCBs), and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS).

Statement 1 is incorrect: Although the focus of rural cooperative lending is agriculture, the share in credit flow to the agriculture of rural cooperatives is only 12.1%, as compared to 76% of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs), and 11.9% of Regional Rural Banks.

Statement 2 is correct: A District Co-operative Central Bank (DCCB) is a cooperative bank operating at the district level in various parts of India. It was established to provide banking to the rural hinterland for the agricultural sector with the branches primarily established in rural and semi-urban areas. DCCBs mobilise deposits from the public and provide credit to the public and PACS.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Constitution under article 173(a) lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen as a member of the state legislature, such as - He must be a citizen of India. He must take an oath or affirmation before the person the Election Commission has designated for this purpose. He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. while a one becomes voter at the age of 18. He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.

Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, a person convicted of an offense and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more will be disqualified from the date of conviction. This disqualification remains in effect for six additional years after their release. Hence, the disqualification is not permanent.