UPSC 2019 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: According to Section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act), ‘minor minerals’ include building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand, and other minerals that the Central Government may declare as minor minerals.

Statement 2 is incorrect: State Governments have the power to grant mining leases for minor minerals under Section 15 of the MMDR Act. The Central Government does not have the power to frame rules related to the grant of minor minerals. The power to frame rules for minor minerals lies with the State Governments under Section 15(1A) of the MMDR Act.

Statement 3 is correct: Section 23C of the MMDR Act empowers State Governments to make rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation, and storage of minerals, including minor minerals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The area under rice cultivation in India, in 2019-20 was 43.7 million hectares while in 2023-24, it became 47.6 million hectares and is highest amongst all.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The annual area under Jowar ranges between 4 and 5 million hectares while the oilseed area is 27.1 million hectares (2019-20) i.e area under the cultivation of Jowar is less than that of oilseeds.

Statement 3 is correct: The area under sugarcane cultivation is 4.6 million hectares (2019-20), 4.9 million hectares (2020-21), 5.2 million hectares (2021-22). The area under cotton cultivation is 13.5 million hectares (2019-20), 13.3 million hectares (2020-21), and 12.4 million hectares (2021-22). Hence the area under cotton cultivation is more than sugar cultivation.

Statement 4 is incorrect: With respect to the year in which the question is asked The area under sugarcane cultivation does not seem to be steadily decreasing. The area under sugarcane cultivation is 4.99 million hectares (2013-14), 5.066 million hectares (2014-15), 4.953 million hectares (2015-16). Addition Information:

As per the Economic Survey 2023-24 Statistics, the area under cultivation (in million hectares) for the above crops over the past five year is:

Crop 2019-20 2020-21 2021-22 2022-23 2023-24 Cotton 13.5 13.3 12.4 12.9 12.7 Rice 43.7 45.8 46.3 47.8 47.6 Jowar 4.8 4.4 3.8 3.5 4.0 Oil-seeds 27.1 28.8 29.0 30.2 30.1 Sugarcane 4.6 4.9 5.2 5.9 5.6

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Forest Act, 1927, was amended in 2017 to exclude bamboo grown on non-forest land from the definition of "tree," thereby allowing its free cultivation and transportation. However, this amendment does not grant forest dwellers the right to fell bamboo grown on forest areas. Bamboo in forest areas is still regulated under forest laws.

Statement 2 is correct: The Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006 recognizes bamboo as a minor forest produce (MFP).

Statement 3 is correct: The FRA, 2006, grants forest dwellers the right to own, collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce (MFP). This includes bamboo, tendu leaves, honey, and other non-timber forest products.

Explanation

Laws to manage e-waste have been in place in India since

2011 under The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, which was amended in 2016 as E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016. It recognises producers’ liability for recycling and reducing e-waste in the country. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility - financial and/or physical - for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been given the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) authorisation under the new e-waste rules.

Explanation

Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (Campa Act), 2016 is aimed at providing an appropriate institutional mechanism to utilize afforestation funds. The Act sets up the Central and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management & Planning Authorities (CAMPA).

Statement 1 is correct: As per the Act, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is set up at both central and state levels for expeditious and transparent utilisation of funds released for forest land diverted for non-forest purposes. The National Fund receives 10% & State Fund gets 90% of funds collected.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 does not mandate people’s participation in compensatory afforestation programmes. While community involvement is encouraged in forest conservation efforts, the Act does not legally require it.

Explanation

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is aimed at protecting, improving the environment & reducing pollution. The Act, empowers the Government of India for coordination of action by the state, planning and execution of nationwide programmes. The Act authorises the central government to control & reduce pollution from all sources.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The provisions in the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not explicitly mention detailed provisions for public participation. However, it does enable certain mechanisms that indirectly promote public involvement.

Statement 2 is correct: Section 3(2)(v) of the Act states that the central government can prescribe standards for the quality of the environment and emissions or discharges of pollutants from various sources. The Act also allows the government to regulate industrial and commercial activities that may harm the environment.

Explanation

Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 promote the use of compost, conversion of waste into energy, and revision of parameters for landfills location and capacity. It replaced the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000 and are now applicable beyond municipal areas and have included urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships etc.

Option (a) is incorrect: Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams-Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, Metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it over to the collector.

Option (b) is incorrect: Under the Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, waste processing facilities will have to be set up by all local bodies having 1 million or more population within two years. In case of census towns below 1 million population, setting up common, or standalone sanitary landfills by, or for all local bodies having 0.5 million or more population and for setting up common, or regional sanitary landfills by all local bodies and census towns under 0.5 million population will have to be completed in three years.

Option (c) is correct: The new rules emphasize waste segregation at source, manufacturer responsibility for packaging and sanitary waste, and user fees for waste management. Biodegradable waste should be processed on-site through composting or bio-methanation, with residual waste handed over to authorized collectors. Schedule I of rules outlines criteria for landfill and waste processing site selection.

Option (d) is incorrect: As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, it is not mandatory for the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established in 2006 to regulate natural gas and petroleum products. It is not the first regulatory body in India. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) (1997) and Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) (1992) were established earlier.

Statement 2 is correct: PNGRB ensures competitive gas markets, tariff regulation, and fair trade practices in natural gas distribution.

Statement 3 is correct: Appeals against PNGRB’s decisions are heard by the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL), which also deals with power sector disputes.

Explanation

India’s forest cover varies significantly across states, with eastern and central states having higher coverage. According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR), 2019, the correct ascending order based on percentage of forest cover to the total area is:

Maharashtra (16.47%) Madhya Pradesh (25.11%) Odisha (32.98%) Chhattisgarh (41.09%) Thus, the correct order is Maharashtra Madhya Pradesh Odisha Chhattisgarh (3-2-4-1).

Explanation

The Service Area Approach (SAA) was implemented under the purview of the Lead Bank Scheme. It was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 1989. The SAA aimed to facilitate the planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas. Under this approach, each commercial bank branch in these areas was designated to serve a specific cluster of 15 to 25 villages. The designated branch was responsible for meeting the banking needs of its assigned service area, thereby strengthening the link between bank credit and rural development.