95 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 61–70 of 95 questions
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UPSC 2018Polity · Parliament
Q61. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
Explanation
Article 110 of the Constitution states that a bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:
The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government; The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund; The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India; Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount of any such expenditure; The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India, or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state; Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q62. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
Explanation
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) operates the National Financial Switch (NFS) which is the largest network of shared ATMs in India which connects over 265,000 ATMs as of January,2025. NFS facilitates interoperable cash withdrawal, card-to-card funds transfer, and interoperable cash deposit transactions, among other services thereby linking ATMs across the country.
Additional insight:
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) was established by the RBI and the Indian Banks’ Association under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 to enhance India’s payment infrastructure. It is incorporated as a "Not for Profit" company under Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of the 2013 Act). The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank Limited, HDFC Bank Limited, Citibank and HSBC.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q63. Which one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes seen in news?
Explanation
The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a fee charged to merchants by banks or payment gateways for accepting payments from their customers and processing digital transactions such as payments made through debit cards, credit cards or other electronic means. It is typically a small percentage of the transaction amount and is used to cover the costs of processing the payment.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q64. Consider the following statements: 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues. 2. CAR is decided by each individual bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
The Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) measures a bank’s ability to handle risks like credit and operational risks while meeting its obligations. Simply put, it acts as a ‘cushion’ to absorb potential losses, protecting depositors and lenders. Regulators set and monitor minimum CAR levels to maintain trust in the banking system and ensure stability. A strong CAR shows that a bank can handle losses without affecting its financial commitments, reducing risks from defaults or unexpected economic challenges. The capital adequacy ratio is computed by dividing the total capital of a bank by its risk-weighted assets. This is why the CAR is also called the Capital to Risk (Weighted) Assets Ratio (CRAR).
Statement 1 is correct: Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities.
Statement 2 is incorrect: CAR is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process. The Re-serve Bank of India (RBI) mandates specific CAR requirements to ensure banks are adequately capitalised. This is aligned with the Basel III norms, which are international regulatory frameworks designed to improve the regulation, supervision, and risk management within the banking sector. Indian banks must ad-here to these norms to operate effectively both domestically and internationally.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q65. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
Explanation
Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law which the creditor is obligated to accept towards repayment of a debt. In other words, legal tender refers to the type of currency that the government has officially declared to be acceptable for conducting financial transactions within a country. Legal tender varies from country to country as different countries define and regulate their legal tender according to their monetary laws and policies. For instance, the U.S. dollar is legal tender in the United States, whereas for Eurozone countries the legal tender is euro. In India, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is authorized to issue banknotes under RBI Act of 1934, which emphasises that ‘every banknote issued by RBI, unless withdrawn from circulation, shall be legal tender at any place in India for the amount expressed on it’. Legal tender can be categorized as either limited or unlimited. In India, coins are considered limited legal tender and currency notes are considered unlimited legal tender.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q66. Consider the following statements: 1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities. 2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the state Governments. 3. Treasury bills are issued at a discount from the par value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of In-dia (RBI) manages and services both Government of India (Central Government) securities and State Government securities. These are called State Development Loans (SDLs). RBI acts as the debt manager for both the Government of India (GoI) and State Governments.
Statement 2 is correct: In India only the Central Government issues Treasury Bills (T-bills). State Governments do not issue T-bills. They raise funds through bonds known as State Development Loans (SDLs).
Statement 3 is correct: Treasury Bills (T-Bills) are issued at a discount to their face value (par value) and redeemed at face value upon maturity. The difference between the issue price and the face value represents the interest earned by the investor. For example a T-Bill with a face value of 100 might be issued at 98 and the investor earns 2 as interest.
UPSC 2018Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q67. Consider the following statements: 1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. 2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide. 3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Earth’s magnetic field has undergone numerous reversals over geological time scales. These geomagnetic reversals occur at irregular intervals averaging approximately every 300,000 years though it varies.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Over 4000 million years ago earth’s early atmosphere lacked oxygen and was primarily composed of gases like methane, ammonia, water vapor, and carbon dioxide. The current level of oxygen (around 21%) accumulated much later due to photosynthetic activity by living organisms.
Statement 3 is correct: Living organisms particularly cyanobacteria played a significant role in modifying the Earth’s early atmosphere by producing oxygen through photosynthesis. This process led to the Great Oxygenation Event around 2.4 billion years ago. This marked a pivotal shift from an oxygen-poor to an oxygen-rich atmosphere, profoundly influencing the evolution of life.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q68. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements: 1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Capital infusion into Public Sector Banks (PSBs) over the last decade has not followed a steady upward trend. It has been cyclical driven primarily by specific challenges such as rising non-performing assets (NPAs). The government has made substantial infusions during critical periods while scaling back during others, depending on the banks’ requirements and fiscal constraints.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2017 five associate banks (State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Patiala, and State Bank of Tra-vancore) along with Bharatiya Mahila Bank were merged with State Bank of India (SBI). This merger was aimed at improving operational efficiency, reducing costs, and enhancing the balance sheet of SBI.
UPSC 2018Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q69. ‘3D printing’ has applications in which of the following? 1. Preparation of confectionery items 2. Manufacture of bionic ears 3. Automotive industry 4. Reconstructive surgeries 5. Data processing technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
3D printing, also known as additive manufacturing, is a method of creating a three dimensional object layer-by-layer using a computer simulated design. A 3D item is produced by the additive method of 3D printing, which involves building up layers of material. Options 1 is correct: 3D printing is widely used in the food industry to create intricate designs, especially with edible materials like chocolate and sugar. This technique enables customization and the production of unique shapes that are difficult to achieve with traditional methods. Options 2 is correct: Researchers have successfully used 3D printing to fabricate bionic ears by integrating biological cells with conductive materials. This method not only replicates the structure of a human ear but also enhances its functionality by embedding electronics, potentially improving hearing capabilities.
Option 3 is correct: In the automotive sector, 3D printing is used for rapid prototyping, creating tools, and manufacturing parts. It speeds up the design process, reduces production costs, and enables the creation of lightweight components, which improve vehicle performance and fuel efficiency.
Option 4 is correct: The healthcare sector leverages 3D printing for producing customized implants and prosthetics. In reconstructive surgeries, this technology allows for the creation of patient-specific implants that precisely match the patient’s anatomy, leading to better surgical outcomes.
Option 5 is correct: While 3D plays a significant role in data visualization. For instance, in scientific research, complex data sets can be transformed into tangible 3D models, enhancing the understanding of intricate structures.
Exam tip:
You can try, The "NOT" approach for all statements, this tests the improbability of negating a statement--if denying its impact seems highly unlikely, the statement is plausibly true.
UPSC 2018Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q70. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
Explanation
Pakke Tiger Reserve is also known as "Pakhui Tiger Re-serve". It is situated in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh, India. It is one of the key protected areas in the Eastern Himalayas and is renowned for its rich biodiversity. The reserve lies within the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, an area known for its diverse flora and fauna. Pakhui is home to a significant population of Royal Bengal tigers, along with Asian elephants, clouded leopards, Hoolock gibbons, and a variety of bird species, including the endangered Great Indian hornbill. For its Hornbill Nest Adoption Program, this Tiger Reserve received the 2016 India Biodiversity Award in the category of "Conservation of vulnerable species."
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
61
2018
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
62
2018
(c) National Payments Corporation of India
63
2018
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
64
2018
(a) 1 only
65
2018
(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
66
2018
(c) 2 and 3 only
67
2018
(c) 1 and 3 only
68
2018
(b) 2 only
69
2018
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
70
2018
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 95 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.