98 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2012 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 51–60 of 98 questions
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UPSC 2012Polity · Parliament
Q51. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of 1. Ordinary Legislation 2. Money Bill 3. Constitution Amendment Bill Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
Provision of Joint sitting of two houses of parliament is given under Article 108. It is an extraordinary mechanism to break a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill. The president can summon joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill.It is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of the Houses. The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting. In their absence, the Deputy Speaker takes charge, followed by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. If none are available, members present elect a presiding officer.
UPSC 2012Polity · Parliament
Q52. Which reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: 1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in partnership with the Election Commission of India. Composition: Generally, the Delimitation Commission comprises a serving or retired Supreme Court judge as the Chairperson, an Election Commissioner nominated by the Chief Election Commissioner, and the State Election Commissioners of the respective states. Objective: To determine the number and boundaries of constituencies, to identify seats reserved for SC/ST. Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times: 1952, 1963, 1973 and
2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
Statement 1 is correct: The act of Delimitation is redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and Assembly constituencies to represent changes in population and done on the basis of the preceding Census. Its objective is to ensure that all population groups are fairly represented, with equitable geographic distribution so that no political party benefits. A Delimitation Commission is in charge of carrying out this exercise, and its decisions are binding and cannot be challenged in court. However, in Kishorchandra Chhanganlal Rathod case SC held that constitutional courts have the power to review orders of the Delimitation Commission
Statement 2 is correct: When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
UPSC 2012Polity · Parliament
Q53. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament. 2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill. 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on accounts. 4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office. 5. Introducing the Finance Bill in the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Article 112 of the Indian Constitution deals with placing annual financial statements in Parliament. It outlines the estimated revenue and expenditure of the government for the upcoming financial year. It is a key tool for Parliament to examine, debate, and approve the government’s financial plans:
Statement 2 is correct: Article 114 mandates that the government can withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India only after receiving approval from Parliament after passage of the Appropriation Bill.
Statement 3 is correct: If the government needs extra funds, it requests supplementary grants via a Supplementary Appropriation Bill. A Vote-on-Account provides interim funds until the full budget is approved. It is passed (or granted) after the general discussion on budget is over. It is generally granted for two months for an amount equivalent to one-sixth of the total estimation.
Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no such Parliamentary budget office to review programs of Government. The Estimate Committee of parliament reviews policies and continuously examines estimates of programs from time to time throughout the year.
Statement 5 is correct: The Finance Bill is a key legislative instrument that Parliament must pass to give effect to the government’s tax proposals, which are an essential part of the Budget.
UPSC 2012Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q54. Consider the following protected areas: 1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika 3. Manas 4. Sunderbans Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
Explanation
Project Tiger was initiated in 1973 under the Wild-life Protection Act, 1972, with the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) overseeing the implementation. The project was launched with the primary goal to protect the Bengal tiger, enhance their population, and safeguard their habitats through the establishment of Tiger Reserves. The project has been highly successful, expanding to include a range of conservation efforts. A Tiger Reserve is a protected area legally designated for the conservation of striped big cats. It can also be classified as a national park or wildlife sanctuary. For example, Sariska Tiger Reserve is also a national park because it was initially established as a na-tional park before being dedicated to tiger conservation.
UPSC 2012Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q55. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
Explanation
According to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, a national park is defined as an area, whether within a sanctuary or not, that can be designated by the state government due to its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphologi-cal, or zoological significance. The purpose of this designation is to protect, propagate, or develop the wildlife and its environment. In National Parks, local people are generally not allowed to collect and use the biomass or any resources for subsistence purposes. The primary objective of National Parks is the protection of biodiversity and preservation of ecosystems. These parks are strictly protected under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, and human activities, including the collection of resources like firewood, grazing, and hunting, are prohibited unless specifically allowed for research or management purposes.
UPSC 2012Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q56. The basic aid of Lead Bank Scheme is that:
Explanation
The Lead Bank Scheme (LBS) was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 1969 following the recommendations of the Gadgil Study Group (1969). The primary objective of the scheme is to promote banking penetration, credit flow, and financial inclusion in rural areas by assigning a specific bank to act as the lead bank for a district. This lead bank is responsible for coordinating banking activities and ensuring that credit reaches priority sectors like agriculture, MSMEs, and weaker sections. Key Features of Lead Bank Scheme (LBS):
1. Each district is assigned a Lead Bank (mostly a public sector or large private bank).
2. Lead Bank is responsible for coordinating financial institutions, monitoring credit flow, and improving banking services in its district.
3. Priority Sector Lending (PSL) is a major focus, ensuring credit to agriculture, MSMEs, and weaker sections.
4. District Credit Plans (DCPs) are formulated to set targets for bank credit expansion in the region.
5. SLBC (State Level Bankers’ Committee) and DLCC (District Level Coordination Committees) ensure implementation of the scheme.
UPSC 2012Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q57. Why is the offering of "teaser loans" by commercial banks a cause of economic concern? 1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of subprime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future. 2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
A teaser loan is a loan with an initially low-interest rate for a fixed period, after which the rate increases gradually. They are commonly used in home loans, credit cards, and other financing schemes to attract borrowers. State Bank of India (SBI) introduced teaser loans in 2009 for home loans in India. Subprime lending is the practice of lending to borrowers with a low credit rating that may be exposed to the risk of default in future.
Statement 1 is correct: Teaser loans are often linked with subprime lending practices, where loans are extended to borrowers with lower creditworthiness. The low initial rates can lure borrowers who may struggle to repay when the rates increase, leading to a higher risk of defaults in the future. After the initial low-rate period ends, borrowers may face significantly higher payments. If they are unable to meet these higher payments, defaults can occur. This puts financial institutions at risk and can contribute to broader economic instability.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Teaser loans in India are not primarily given to inexperienced entrepreneurs for setting up manufacturing or export units. They are mostly offered in the housing loan segment to attract homebuyers with lower initial EMIs.
UPSC 2012Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q58. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification. 2. The combustible gases generated consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only. 3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
Biomass gasification is a process that converts biomass (organic materials like wood, crop residues, and animal waste) into syngas (synthetic gas) by heating it in a controlled environment with limited oxygen or steam.
Statement 1 is correct: Rice husk, groundnut shells, and coconut shells can all be utilised in the biomass gasification process.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Biomass gasification involves burning of biomass in a limited supply of air to provide a combustible gas consisting of carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, methane, water, nitrogen, along with contaminants like small char particles, ash and tars.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Combustible syngas is frequently used as a fuel for internal combustion engines or as a step in the synthesis of other compounds. Consequently, the flammable gases produced by biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation as well as in internal combustion engines.
UPSC 2012Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q59. Graphene has been frequently in the news recently. What is its importance? 1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity. 2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far. 3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency. 4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Graphene is a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal honeycomb lattice, making it the thinnest, strongest, and most conductive material known. It has remarkable applications in electronics, energy storage, and nanotechnology due to its high strength, flexibility, and conductivity.
Statement 1 is correct: Graphene, a two-dimensional, atomic-scale, honeycomb lattice is an allotrope of carbon in which one atom forms each vertex. It is the basic structural unit of other allotropes, including graphite, charcoal, carbon nanotubes and fullerenes. Graphene has remarkably good electrical conductivity.
Statement 2 is correct: It is often cited as about 100 times stronger than the strongest steel with a hypothetical thickness of 3.35°(approx.) which is equal to the thickness of a graphene sheet. Carbon atoms are linked together in a single layer to form the hexagonal structure that makes up graphene. Graphene is so much thinner than paper (a million times thinner), that it is actually regarded as two dimensional.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Graphene is a single layer (monolayer) of carbon atoms, not silicon, tightly bound in a hexagonal honeycomb lattice. It is an allotrope of carbon in the form of a plane of sp2-bonded atoms with a molecular bond length of 0.142 nanometres.
Statement 4 is correct: Graphene is often produced as a powder and as a dispersion in a polymer matrix. This dispersion is supposedly suitable for advanced composites, paints and coatings, lubricants, oils and functional fluids, capacitors and batteries, thermal management applications, display materials, etc. Graphene is often cited as a promising material for use as conducting electrodes in devices like touch screens, LCDs, and organic LEDs due to its excellent electrical conductivity and high transparency
UPSC 2012Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q60. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning? 1. Smelting units 2. Pens and pencils 3. Paints 4. Hair oils and cosmetics Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
Lead poisoning is a toxic condition caused by the accumulation of lead in the body, typically through exposure to contaminated air, water, soil, or consumer products. It affects multiple organ systems, particularly the nervous system, and can lead to severe health issues such as cognitive impairment, developmental delays, and organ damage.
Option 1 and 3 are correct: Even after the stricter regulations, major sources of lead pollution include mining, smelting, manufacturing, and recycling, with the production of lead-acid batteries for automobiles accounting for over three-quarters of global lead usage. Other common sources of lead poisoning include lead-based paint, contaminated soil, children’s toys and jewelry, drinking water from lead pipes, workplace and hobby hazards (such as mining and smelting), lead-glazed ceramics, pottery, leaded crystal, imported candy, and mini blinds.
Option 2 and 4 are incorrect:
Pens and pencils are incorrect as modern pencils mostly contain graphite, not lead, and pens use regulated ink formulations. Hair oils and cosmetics are incorrect because most cosmetic products are strictly regulated to prevent lead contamination, with only rare exceptions in some traditional items.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
51
2012
(a) 1 only
52
2012
(c) Both 1 and 2
53
2012
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
54
2012
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
55
2012
(b) National Parks
56
2012
(c) Individual banks should adopt a particular district for intensive development.
57
2012
(a) 1 only
58
2012
(a) 1 only
59
2012
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
60
2012
(b) 1 and 3 only
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 98 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2012 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2012 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.