UPSC 2012 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: When the central bank buys government securities (like bonds) from the public it injects money into the economy. The sellers of these securities receive cash, increasing the money supply. This is a key tool of monetary policy known as open market operations.

Statement 2 is incorrect: When the public deposits currency into commercial banks, it doesn’t increase the overall money supply. It simply changes the form of money. Currency in circulation decreases but bank deposits increase by the same amount. These deposits can then be used by banks to create credit. Thus the initial act of depositing cash is neutral with respect to the money supply.

Statement 3 is correct: When the government borrows directly from the central bank, it often leads to an increase in the money supply. The central bank essentially creates new money to lend to the government. This is sometimes referred to as "monetizing the debt."

Statement 4 is incorrect: When the Central Bank sells government securities to the public, it effectively reduces the amount of money circulating in the economy. The public (individuals or financial institutions) buys these securities by paying money to the Central Bank. This payment transfers money from the public’s hands to the Central Bank, which essentially "locks away" this cash. This tool is part of Open Market Operations (OMO) aimed at controlling inflation or overheating of the economy.

Explanation

Mixed farming is an agricultural system where crop cultivation and livestock rearing are carried out on the same farm. Mixed farming integrates crop production and animal husbandry, balancing risks while recycling nutrients through manure and crop residues. It diversifies income and enhances sustainability. This practice is designed to maximize the use of available resources and diversify the income sources for the farmer. The integration of crops and animals is a key feature that distinguishes mixed farming from other farming systems.

Option (a) is incorrect: It involves crop diversification typical of commercial farming, not mixed farming with livestock.

Option (b) is incorrect: describes intercropping, which lacks the animal component essential to mixed farming.

Explanation

The crops which are predominantly rainfed in India are Groundnut, Sesamum and Pearl millets. Groundnut is a drought-tolerant crop that requires moderate rainfall for its growth and development. Rainfall for cultivation - 500 to 600 mm per annum, distributed rainfall pattern throughout the growing season. Groundnut can withstand a dry spell of 15-20 days during its vegetative stage, but it requires adequate moisture during the flowering and pod formation stages. Sesamum requires temperature is 25°C to 30°C, can tolerate up to 40°C, sensitive to frost required rainfall is 500-600 mm, its drought-tolerant, excessive rainfall during flowering can cause lower yields. It requires well-drained Soil type, rich in organic matter, pH range of 5.5 to 8.0. Pearl millet is a hardy crop that can grow in semi-arid regions. The ideal rainfall for pearl millet cultivation is between 400 to 600 mm per annum, with a well-distributed rainfall pattern throughout the growing season. Pearl millet can tolerate drought conditions and requires moisture during the early growth stages, especially during germination and tillering. Rainfed agriculture is carried out in a wide range of soil types, agro-climatic conditions, and annual rainfall ranges from 400 mm to 1600 mm. Rainfed areas account for percent of millet production, 88 percent of pulses, 73 percent of cotton, 69 percent of oilseeds including groundnut and Sesame.

Explanation

As per the Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President, who also appoints other ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. A person who is not a member of the Parliament/State legislature can be appointed as PM/CM for six months, within which time, he should be elected to the Parliament/State legislature as per Supreme Court judgments.

Explanation

National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010 aims at efficient & quick resolution of environmental disputes (within 6 months of appeal) in order to lessen the burden of litigation in the higher courts. The Act established National-Green Tribunal with jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment. Tribunal is guided by principles of natural justice & its order is executable as a decree of a civil court. Although the NGT’s orders are final, they may be contested in the SC within 90 days.

Statement 1 is correct: The NGT Act is grounded in the fundamental right to a clean and healthy environment, which is integral to the Right to Life under Article 21. Landmark judgments, such as Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991) and M.C. Mehta cases, have expanded the interpretation of Article 21 to include environmental protection. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: Provisions mentioned in statements 2 and 3 have no bearing upon National-Green Tribunal:

Article 275(1) of the Constitution of India guarantees grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of India each year for promoting the welfare of Scheduled Tribes. Infrastructure development schemes like protected drinking water, road connectivity, electricity and housing are provided under this scheme. 243A provides that a Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide.

Explanation

The Demographic Transition Model (DTM) describes the shift in population growth patterns as an economy develops. India is currently in Stage 3, moving towards a stabilized population with lower fertility rates. Stage 1 (High Birth Rate & High Death Rate): This occurs in pre-industrial societies, where disease, famine, and poor healthcare keep both birth and death rates high. Stage 2 (High Birth Rate & Low Death Rate): With better healthcare and sanitation, mortality declines while fertility remains high, leading to rapid population growth. Stage 3 (Low Birth Rate & Low Death Rate): As urbanization, education, and family planning improve, birth rates decline, stabilizing population growth.

Explanation

Adjournment Motion is one of the devices of Parliamentary proceedings. The purpose of an Adjournment Motion is to raise an issue of urgent public importance that requires immediate discussion in the Parliament. It is typically used to bring up issues related to national or regional significance, like natural disasters, economic crises, or controversial government actions. The motion requires the approval of the Speaker or Chairman, and if allowed, the matter is debated in the House. It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 80 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha consists of members nominated members (not more than 12) and representatives of States (indirectly elected by legislative councils of states) and Union Territories (to be chosen in such manner as parliament may prescribe by law). U.T of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry have representation in Rajya sabha who are chosen through indirect election by their respective legislative assemblies.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) does not have the authority to adjudicate election disputes. While the ECI supervises elections, disputes are handled by Election Tribunals or High Courts. The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to adjudicate such matters. Election Petitions under Part III of the Presidential and Vice Presidential Elections Act, 1952 are also filed directly in the Supreme Court. Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures lie within the original jurisdiction of High Courts.

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the President of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. Article 93 to 97 of the Constitution of India deals with the provisions of the Presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha. There is no role of the President in removing the Speaker. Hence, The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. It should be noted here that, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets.

Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Article 93 of the Constitution, the Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of their election. The condition to become a member within six months applies to ministers under Article 75(5), not to the Speaker.

Statement 3 is correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has to vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases:

If he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha; If he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; and If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all, then members of the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice.

Explanation

The Rajya Sabha has been given four exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha:

It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List (Article 249). It can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states (Article 312). Resolution for the removal of the vice-president can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha not in the Lok Sabha (Article 67). A proclamation for declaring a national emergency, President’s rule, or a financial emergency (under Articles 352, 356, and 360) can remain in effect even if it is approved only by the Rajya Sabha in case the Lok Sabha is dissolved before or during the emergency period.