113 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2010 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 61–70 of 113 questions
Browse by subject
UPSC 2010Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q61. Consider the following pairs:
Protected area
Well-known for
1. Bhitarkanika, Orissa
Salt Water Crocodile
2. Desert National Park, Rajasthan
Great Indian Bustard
3. Eravikulam, Kerala
Hoolak Gibbon
Which of the pairs given above is / are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Bhitarkanika National Park is well-known for its population of Saltwater Crocodiles (Crocodylus porosus), which are the largest living reptiles in the world. The park is located in the Kendrapara district of Odisha and is home to a significant number of these crocodiles. It also has rich biodiversity, including mangroves and various bird species.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Desert National Park is well-known for being a habitat of the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard, a large bird species. The National Park is located in Jaisalmer and Barmer district of Rajasthan.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Eravikulam National Park in Kerala is known for its population of Nilgiri Tahr, not the Hoolock Gibbon. The Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) is found in parts of Northeast India and in the forests of Assam, Meghalaya, and Arunachal Pradesh, not in Kerala.
UPSC 2010Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q62. Consider the following statements: 1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation. 2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna. 3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted. Which of the statements given above is / correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: National Parks in India are designated under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, and their boundaries are clearly defined by legal statutes. This is done to ensure strict protection and conservation of biodiversity, and no human activity is allowed within the park unless specifically authorized.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Biosphere Reserves, designated under the Man and Biosphere Reserves Programme of UNESCO started in 1971 by the Ministry of Environment and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Biosphere Reserves are established to conserve biodiversity in its entirety, not just a few specific species. These reserves focus on both species and ecosystems in a sustainable manner, including human communities. They aim for ecological conservation, research, and sustainable use of natural resources.
Statement 3 is correct: In Wildlife Sanctuaries, human activity and biotic interference are allowed in certain circumstances, like grazing or collection of non-timber forest products, as long as they do not harm the wildlife or environment. The level of interference is regulated based on the sanctuary’s management plan.
UPSC 2010Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q63. India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as Ramsar sites. Which of the following statements best describes how we should maintain these sites in the context of this convention?
Explanation
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is an international treaty focused on the conservation and sustainable use of wet-lands worldwide. It promotes the ecosystem approach to con-serve wetland sites while ensuring their sustainable use, aiming to preserve ecosystem services like flood regulation, water purification, and biodiversity habitat, while benefiting local communities economically and socially. The Convention’s mission is to support the conservation and wise use of wetlands through local, national, and international efforts to achieve sustainable devel-opment globally. The Ramsar Convention was signed on February 2, 1971, in Ramsar, Iran. India became a party to the convention and has since designated several wetlands as Ramsar sites to protect and sustainably manage these ecologically important areas.
UPSC 2010Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q64. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Rate, what does it mean?
Explanation
The CRR is the percentage of a bank’s total deposits that it must keep as reserves with the RBI in the form of cash. This is a monetary policy tool used by the RBI to control liquidity in the economy. This amount cannot be used for lending or investment by banks. When the RBI increases the CRR, banks are required to keep a higher proportion of their deposits as reserves. This reduces the amount of money available with banks for lending to businesses and individuals.
Option (b) is incorrect: RBI does not lend money to the public or businesses. It only regulates the money supply through tools like CRR.
Option (c) is incorrect: The Union Government’s borrowing and lending activities are separate from the RBI’s monetary policy tools like CRR.
Option (d) is incorrect: An increase in CRR reduces (not increases) the amount of money available for lending by commercial banks.
UPSC 2010Geography · Agriculture
Q65. Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas. 2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas. Coffee thrives in a hot and humid tropical climate, requiring temperatures between 15°C and 28°C with well-distributed rainfall. Traditional coffee producing regions include the southern states of Karnataka (largest producer), Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. Non-traditional regions consist of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha, located in the Eastern Ghats of India. Tea can grow in both tropical and subtropical with temperaturerange 20-30°C requiring high humidity and well-distributed rainfall (100-200 cm) areas. For example, it is cultivated in Assam (tropical) and Darjeeling (subtropical) regions. Assam is the largest producer of tea in the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is not propagated by stem cuttings only. Coffee is primarily propagated by seeds, but vegetative propagation methods like cuttings and grafting are also used. Tea is propagated both by seeds and vegetative methods, including stem cuttings and grafting, depending on the desired plant characteristics. In tea cultivation, cuttings are planted either upright or at a slight angle, ensuring that the leaves do not come into contact with the soil. After developing roots, they are transferred to the field approximately 12 months later. Seeds, on the other hand, are sown at a depth of 1.5 to 2.5 cm.
UPSC 2010Geography · Agriculture
Q66. With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices: 1. Crop rotation 2. Sand fences 3. Terracing 4. Wind breaks Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India?
Explanation
Soil conservation techniques aim to prevent soil erosion, improve soil fertility, and maintain ecological balance.
Option 1 is correct: Rotating crops helps maintain soil fertility by alternating nutrient-exhausting crops with nitrogen-fixing ones, reducing soil degradation and pest infestations. Legumes are rotated with cereals to fix nitrogen in the soil in states like Punjab and Haryana.
Option 2 is correct: Sand fences are barriers made of wood or other materials to trap sand and stabilize soil in areas prone to wind erosion, such as coastal or desert regions. It is practised in arid regions like Rajasthan, where wind erosion is a problem.
Option 3 is correct: Terracing involves creating step-like structures on slopes, which slows down water runoff, prevents soil erosion, and conserves moisture, making it highly effective in hilly areas.
Option 4 is correct: Wind breaks are rows of trees or shrubs planted to reduce wind speed and protect soil from erosion, especially in open fields. It is commonly used in hilly regions like the Himalayas and Western Ghats.
UPSC 2010Geography · Agriculture
Q67. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops?
Explanation
The National Development Council (NDC) in 2007 adopted a resolution to launch a Food Security Mission comprising rice, wheat and pulses to increase the annual production of rice by 10 million tonnes, wheat by 8 million tonnes and pulses by 2 million tonnes by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011-12). Accordingly, a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, ‘National Food Security Mission’ (NFSM), was launched in October 2007. Initially, NFSM (2007-08) focused on rice, wheat, and pulses only. The objectives of NFSM are:
Increase production of specific crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement. Ensure sustainability by focusing on improved technologies and efficient resource use. Enhance farm profitability and rural livelihoods.
UPSC 2010Geography · Agriculture
Q68. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what possible reason/ reasons is this attributable? 1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane. 2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Paddy fields are typically flooded, creating anaerobic (oxygen-deprived) conditions. Soil saturation in wetland rice fields restricts oxygen transport, creating anaerobic conditions due to submergence. This environment supports the activity of methanogenic bacteria, which produce methane (CH₄), a potent greenhouse gas. Rice cultivation is a significant source of methane emissions globally.
Statement 2 is correct: Nitrogen-based fertilizers, which enhance crop yield, stimulate soil microbes to convert nitrogen into nitrous oxide (N₂O), another potent greenhouse gas. Microbial processes like nitrification and denitrification in the soil release nitrous oxide, especially in poorly drained, waterlogged soils. Nitrous oxide has a global warming potential 265 times greater than CO₂ over 100 years.
UPSC 2010Geography · Agriculture
Q69. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol?
Explanation
Energy crops, also called agroenergy or bioenergy crops, are cultivated specifically to generate biomass for renewable energy production. These crops can thrive on degraded, waste, saline, or waterlogged lands. In addition to providing a sustainable energy source, energy crops contribute to reducing greenhouse gas emissions. They also play a role in enhancing water quality and supporting wildlife habitats.
Option (a) is incorrect: Jatropha is primarily cultivated for biodiesel, as its seeds contain oil that can be converted to biodiesel. It is not used for ethanol production.
Option (b) is correct: Maize (corn) is a major crop used for ethanol production. It is rich in starch, which is fermented by yeast into ethanol.India is expanding maize-based ethanol production as part of the Ethanol Blending Program (EBP) to reduce petrol imports.
Option (c) is incorrect: Pongamia (Indian beech) is mainly used for biodiesel production due to the oil content in its seeds. It is not used for ethanol production.
Option (d) is incorrect: Sunflower, with very low sugar content, is primarily grown for edible oil production. It is not a significant crop for ethanol production.
UPSC 2010Indian Economy · Taxation
Q70. In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage of gross tax revenue has significantly declined in the last five years?
Explanation
The share of excise duty in gross tax revenue saw a significant decline in the five years leading up to 2010. This was primarily due to the shift toward service tax and the rationalization of indirect taxes. The reduction in excise duty rates for essential goods, introduction of exemptions, and gradual steps toward the Goods and Services Tax (GST) framework also contributed to this trend. According to the Economic Survey 2009-10, excise duty collections as a percentage of total revenue declined as the government focused on reducing cascading effects in indirect taxation to promote industrial growth and exports. This shift in taxation policy marked the transition of India’s indirect tax structure to a more consumption-based taxation system. Note: If this question were asked today, excise duty has been largely replaced by GST for most goods, further reducing its contribution to tax revenue.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
61
2010
(b) 1 and 2 only
62
2010
(c) 1 and 3 only
63
2010
(d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their simultaneous sustainable use.
64
2010
(a) The commercial banks will have less money to lend
65
2010
(a) 1 only
66
2010
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
67
2010
(b) Rice, wheat and pulses only
68
2010
(c) Both 1 and 2
69
2010
(b) Maize
70
2010
(c) Excise duty
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 113 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2010 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2010 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.