Science and Technology: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
473 previous year UPSC Prelims Science and Technology questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, in 21 chapters. Biology: Zoology is the largest, followed by Miscellaneous (energy, vehicles and materials), Botany, Space and ICT. Recent papers lean on applied technology in the news, while older ones lean on school-level physics, chemistry and biology. Filter by chapter to revise one area at a time.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 41–50 of 473 questions
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UPSC 2022Science and Technology · Information and Communication Technology
Q41. Consider the following communication technologies: 1. Closed-circuit Television 2. Radio Frequency Identification 3. Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/ technologies?
Explanation
Short-Range Devices (SRDs) are communication technologies designed for limited-distance operations, typically within a few meters to a few hundred meters.
Option 1 is correct: CCTV systems use video cameras to transmit signals to specific monitors for surveillance purposes. The transmission range of CCTV systems is generally confined to the premises being monitored, making them short-range by design.
Option 2 is correct: RFID employs electromagnetic fields to automatically identify and track tags attached to objects. They are typically short-range, with passive RFID tags readable from up to a few meters and active tags extending up to 100 meters.
Option 3 is correct: WLANs enable wireless network communication within a localized area, such as a home or office, using high-frequency radio waves. The effective range of WLANs is usually within 100 meters, categorizing them as short-range communication technologies.
UPSC 2022Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q42. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions 3. Power grids could be damaged 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth 5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
A solar storm is a disturbance on the Sun that can release a burst of energy and particles into space. These eruptions, such as solar flares and coronal mass ejections, can impact Earth by disrupting communication systems, damaging satellites, and even causing power outages. Statements 1 and 7 are correct: These solar explosions propel bursts of particles and electromagnetic fluctuations into Earth’s atmosphere that could lead to the malfunction of satellites, which might impact high-frequency communication blackouts, satellite anomalies, GPS scintillations, airline communication.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Solar storms affect the Earth’s magnetosphere and ionosphere but do not directly cause tsunamis, which are triggered by seismic activity, underwater landslides, or volcanic eruptions.
Statement 3 is correct: The solar explosions propel bursts of particles and electromagnetic fluctuations into Earth’s atmosphere that could destroy transformers in power systems.
Statement 4 is correct: Energy, radiation and high energy particles emitted by solar flares can trigger intense lights in the sky, called Auroras.
Statement 5 is incorrect: Flares are electromagnetic radiation bursts rather than actual fires. They won’t start forest fires as a result. While they release high-energy radiation, it does not directly ignite fires on Earth.
Statement 6 is correct: Particles from a CME can potentially collide with a satellite’s critical electronics, causing the satellite’s systems to malfunction.
UPSC 2022Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q43. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in the media?
Explanation
The Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) is a missile technology designed to place a nuclear warhead into a partial Earth orbit before deorbiting to strike a target. Unlike intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs), FOBS takes an unpredictable orbital path, bypassing traditional radar systems and potentially striking from unexpected directions, such as via the South Pole. Originally developed by the Soviet Union in the 1960s, FOBS was tested with the R-36ORB missile but later abandoned under arms control treaties like SALT II and the Outer Space Treaty. Recent reports indicate renewed interest, with countries like China reportedly testing FOBS integrated with hypersonic glide vehicles. Its capability to evade missile defenses has raised global security concerns and spurred advancements in countermeasures. ICBM Radar Beam Launch site FOBS FOBS Apogee ~150 km ~1200 km Target Early-warning Radar Fig: Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS)
UPSC 2022Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q44. Consider the following statements: 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
A biofilm is a collection of microbial cells that are encased in a polysaccharide-based matrix and are permanently attached to a surface (i.e., cannot be removed by gentle rinsing). Microorganisms that form biofilms include bacteria, fungi, and protists. Noncellular materials such as mineral crystals, corrosion particles, clay or silt particles, or blood components, depending on the environment in which the biofilm has developed, may also be found in the biofilm matrix.
Statement 1 is correct: Biofilms may form on a wide variety of surfaces, including living tissues, food and food processing surfaces, indwelling medical devices (devices in the body like catheters, heart valves), human and animal tissue, industrial or potable water system piping, or natural aquatic systems.
Statement 2 is correct: Biofilms are a significant concern in the food industry, forming on surfaces such as cutting boards, conveyor belts, and food packaging equipment. Contaminated biofilms can lead to foodborne illnesses caused by pathogens like Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella, and Escherichia coli.
Statement 3 is correct: Microorganisms in biofilms are significantly more resistant to antibiotics compared to planktonic (free-floating) cells because:
The EPS (extracellular polymeric substance) matrix acts as a barrier, limiting antibiotic penetration. Cells within biofilms have reduced metabolic activity, making them less susceptible to antibiotics targeting active processes. Some bacteria within biofilms can exchange antibiotic resistance genes via horizontal gene transfer. This resistance complicates treatment, especially in chronic infections such as cystic fibrosis, where Pseudomonas aeruginosa biofilms are common.
UPSC 2022Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q45. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
Explanation
Some species of ants such as leafcutter ants (of genus Atta and Acromyrmex) are well-known for cultivating fungi. These ants cut leaves and use them to grow fungi in specialized underground gardens. The fungi serve as the primary food source for the ant colony. This relationship between ants and fungi is a classic example of mutualism where both species benefit. The ants provide the fungi with a controlled environment and a constant supply of plant material while the fungi provide the ants with a nutritious food source. Leafcutter ants are primarily found in Central and South America,
UPSC 2021Science and Technology · Health
Q46. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: 1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. 2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Mitochondrial diseases are a group of genetic disorders caused by dysfunction in the mitochondria, the cell’s energy-producing structures.
Statement 1 is correct: Mitochondrial Replacement Therapy (MRT) is an advanced reproductive technique designed to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to child. MRT involves replacing defective mitochondria in an egg or embryo with healthy mitochondria from a donor. This can be achieved through methods such as:
Spindle Transfer: Performed before fertilization, where the nuclear DNA from the mother’s egg is transferred to a donor egg with healthy mitochondria, followed by fertilization. Pronuclear Transfer: Conducted after fertilization, where the pronuclei (genetic material) from a fertilized egg are transferred into a donor zygote that has healthy mitochondria. These techniques aim to ensure that the resulting child inherits healthy mitochondria, thereby preventing mitochondrial diseases.
Statement 2 is correct: A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Mitochondria are unique organelles within cells that have their own DNA, known as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA). Unlike nuclear DNA, which is inherited from both parents, mtDNA is typically inherited exclusively from the mother. This is because the mitochondria in the sperm are usually destroyed or degraded after fertilization, and thus do not contribute to the embryo’s mitochondrial pool. Consequently, if a mother has a mitochondrial disease (caused by mutations in her mtDNA), there is a risk that she can pass it on to her children, while fathers do not pass on mtDNA to their offspring, and thus do not transmit mitochondrial diseases.
UPSC 2021Science and Technology · Health
Q47. The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of:
Explanation
ACE2 (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme 2) is a protein on the surface of many cell types and tissues, including the lungs, heart, blood vessels, kidneys, liver, and gastrointestinal tract. It serves as the entry point for certain coronaviruses, notably SARS-CoV-2, the virus responsible for COVID-19. The virus’s spike protein binds to the ACE2 receptor, facilitating its entry into host cells and leading to infection.
UPSC 2021Science and Technology · Diseases
Q48. Consider the following statements: 1. Adenoviruses have single stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. 2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Adenoviruses are non-enveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses that infect a wide range of hosts, including humans. They are known for their ability to efficiently infect various cell types. A retrovirus is a virus that uses RNA as its genetic material. Upon infection with a retrovirus, a cell converts the retroviral RNA into DNA, which in turn is inserted into the DNA of the host.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Adenoviruses possess linear, double-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have single-stranded RNA genomes. Upon infecting a host cell, retroviruses use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to convert their RNA into double-stranded DNA, which is then integrated into the host’s genome.
Statement 2 is correct: Adenoviruses are known to cause respiratory illnesses, including symptoms similar to the common cold. AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which is a retrovirus.
UPSC 2021Science and Technology · Diseases
Q49. With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccine’, consider the following statements: 1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. 2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
A Recombinant Vector Vaccine is a vaccine that uses a genetically modified virus or bacterium as a carrier to deliver pathogen-specific genes, triggering an immune response.
Statement 1 is correct: Recombinant vector vaccines are developed using genetic engineering to insert genes encoding antigens into harmless viruses or bacteria, which serve as vectors. These vectors deliver the genetic material into the body, enabling the expression of target antigens and triggering an immune response against the pathogen. Examples include viral vector vaccines like Oxford-AstraZeneca (ChAdOx1 nCoV-19) and Sputnik V for COVID-19.
Statement 2 is correct: Both bacteria (such as Salmonella) and viruses (such as adenoviruses and vesicular stomatitis virus) can be used as vectors to deliver genetic material into host cells to stimulate an immune response.
UPSC 2021Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q50. Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?
Explanation
Astronomical distances are measured in light-years to effectively express the vast distances in space using a consistent and universal unit. A light-year represents the distance light travels in one year in a vacuum, which is approximately 9.46 trillion kilometers (5.88 trillion miles). Astronomers calculate the distances of stars and other celestial objects in the time it takes for light to reach us since estimating distances in miles or kilometres is inadequate on the cosmological scale. Since the speed of light is known to be constant throughout the universe and for high precision, astronomical distances are expressed in terms of light-years. The fastest light can move is in vacuum.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
41
2022
(d) 1, 2 and 3
42
2022
(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
43
2022
(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
44
2022
(d) 1, 2 and 3
45
2022
(a) Ant
46
2021
(c) Both 1 and 2
47
2021
(d) The spread of viral diseases
48
2021
(b) 2 only
49
2021
(c) Both 1 and 2
50
2021
(d) The speed of light is always the same.
What UPSC has tested in Science and Technology
Recent questions are application-based: electric vehicles, quantum computing, monoclonal antibodies, CRISPR, gravitational waves and space missions.
Older questions test school science: buoyancy, scattering of light, atomic structure and common compounds.
In Physics and Chemistry, explanations that depend on formulas or equations are left out where the original text could not be shown reliably.
The 2025 paper’s Science and Technology questions covered EVs, UAVs, coal gasification, CL-20, Majorana 1, monoclonal antibodies, GAGAN and ISRO missions.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Science and Technology?
This page covers 473 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Science and Technology, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Science and Technology chapters have the most questions?
Biology: Zoology has the most with 115 questions, then Miscellaneous with 68, Biology: Botany with 37, Space and Space Technology with 36 and Information and Communication Technology with 32.
How should I revise Science and Technology from these questions?
Take the technology chapters first, because recent papers favour them, then use the Physics, Chemistry and Biology chapters for basics. Each chapter page lists the facts UPSC has tested and has an answer key.
Why do some Chemistry and Physics questions look missing?
Questions whose explanations depend on chemical formulas or equations that could not be shown correctly were left out, rather than risk a wrong formula. The questions that remain have clear explanations in plain words.