Science and Technology: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
473 previous year UPSC Prelims Science and Technology questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, in 21 chapters. Biology: Zoology is the largest, followed by Miscellaneous (energy, vehicles and materials), Botany, Space and ICT. Recent papers lean on applied technology in the news, while older ones lean on school-level physics, chemistry and biology. Filter by chapter to revise one area at a time.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 441–450 of 473 questions
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UPSC 1997Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q441. What is the average fat content of buffalo milk?
Explanation
Option (a) is correct: The average fat content of buffalo milk is approximately 7.2%, significantly higher than that of cow>s milk. Buffalo milk is richer in fat compared to cow>s milk, which typically contains around 3-4% fat. The higher fat content in buffalo milk contributes to its creamy texture and makes it ideal for producing dairy products like butter, ghee, and cheese. Options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect: 4.5% is typical of cow’s milk, while 9.0% and 10.0% are not average values for buffalo milk.
UPSC 1997Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q442. The major component of honey is:
Explanation
Option (d) is correct: Fructose is the major component of honey making up about 38-40% of its composition. It is a monosaccharide and is sweeter than glucose. The high fructose content is responsible for honey>s sweetness and its resistance to crystallization compared to glucose. Options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect:
Glucose is one of the primary sugars found in honey, but it is not the major component. Honey typically contains about 30-35% glucose. Glucose is a monosaccharide and contributes to the sweetness and crystallization of honey. Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose. While it is present in honey, it is found in very small amounts (usually less than 5%). Most of the sucrose in nectar is broken down into glucose and fructose by enzymes during the honey-making process. Maltose is not a significant sugar in honey. It is also known as maltobiose or malt sugar which is a disaccharide formed from two units of glucose joined with an -bond between the glucose units.
UPSC 1997Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q443. Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called:
Explanation
Option (c) is correct: Coronary arteries are responsible for supplying oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle. They ensure the heart gets the necessary oxygen and nutrients for its functioning. Options (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect:
The carotid arteries are major blood vessels in the neck that supply oxygenated blood to the brain, face, and neck. The hepatic arteries supply oxygenated blood to the liver along with the hepatic portal vein. The pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation.
UPSC 1997Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q444. Daily intake of proteins, recommended for a moderately active woman is:
Explanation
Option (d) is correct: The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) of protein for a moderately active woman is 46 grams per day. This value is based on the average need for maintaining health, muscle repair, and proper physiological functioning. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein is a modest 0.8 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight. Options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect: 30 g, 37 g, and 40 g are below the daily requirement for a moderately active woman.
UPSC 1997Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q445. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List-I
List-II
A. Malaria
1. Bone marrow
B. Filaria
2. Brain
C. Encephalitis
3. Muscle
D. Leukaemia
4. Lymph node
5. Blood cells
Explanation
A is matched with 5: Malaria is caused by the Plasmodium parasite which infects red blood cells. The parasite multiplies in the blood leading to symptoms such as fever, chills, and anemia. B is matched with 4: Filaria, or lymphatic filariasis is caused by parasitic worms (Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, etc.) that infect the lymphatic system including lymph nodes. This leads to swelling and conditions like elephantiasis. C is matched with 2: Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain which is often caused by viral infections (e.g., herpes simplex virus, Japanese encephalitis virus). It affects brain tissue and can lead to neurological symptoms. D is matched with 1: Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the bone marrow and blood. It involves the overproduction of abnormal white blood cells which disrupts normal blood cell production.
UPSC 1997Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q446. Antigen is a substance which:
Explanation
An antigen is any substance (e.g., proteins, polysaccharides, or toxins) that the immune system recognizes as foreign. When an antigen enters the body, it triggers an immune response leading to the production of antibodies and activation of immune cells like T-cells and B-cells. Options (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect:
Antigens do not have a role in regulating body temperature. Lowering body temperature is typically associated with antipyretics (e.g., paracetamol) or the body>s response to infections (fever reduction). Antigens do not destroy harmful bacteria. Instead they are recognized by the immune system which then activates immune responses (e.g., antibodies, white blood cells) to neutralize or destroy pathogens like bacteria. Antigens are not used as antidotes to poison. Antidotes are specific substances (e.g., activated charcoal, atropine) that neutralize or counteract the effects of toxins or poisons.
UPSC 1997Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q447. The sequencing of the entire genome (the totality of all genes) of an organism was completed in 1996. The organism was:
Explanation
The genome of yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) was the first eukaryotic genome to be fully sequenced. The sequencing was completed in 1996 which marked a major milestone in genomics.
UPSC 1996Science and Technology · Biotechnology
Q448. Which of the following professional(s) are more likely to run the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA? 1. Researchers using Carbon 14 isotope 2. X-ray technician 3. Coal miner 4. Dyer and painter Select the correct answer by using the codes given below Codes:
Explanation
DNA damage and permanent mutations are likely in professionals exposed to mutagenic agents like radiation, toxic chemicals, or hazardous environments.
Statement 1 is correct: Researchers using Carbon-14 isotopes are exposed to beta radiation from the radioactive isotope. Prolonged exposure can damage DNA and increase the risk of mutations.
Statement 2 is correct: X-ray technicians are at risk due to ionizing radiation, which can break DNA strands and cause chromosomal abnormalities. Protective measures like lead aprons are essential to minimize exposure.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While coal miners are exposed to harmful substances like coal dust and radon gas, these hazards are more strongly linked to respiratory diseases (e.g., black lung disease) and lung cancer, rather than direct, widespread DNA changes. Hence, it may not be included as a primary factor for widespread DNA changes.
Statement 4 is correct: Chemicals found in dyes and paints, such as benzene and lead-based compounds, can be harmful. They can cause cell damage and increase the risk of DNA changes. Long-term exposure is linked to a higher risk of cancer.
UPSC 1996Science and Technology · Physics: Optics and Sound
Q449. Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from:
Explanation
Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from a medium with a higher refractive index to a medium with a lower refractive index, and the angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle. From the given options, total internal reflection can take place when light travels from Diamond to glass. This is because diamond has a higher refractive index than glass, so when light travels from diamond to glass, it can undergo total internal reflection if the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.
UPSC 1996Science and Technology · Physics: Electricity and Magnetism
Q450. Assertion (A): Transformer is useful for stepping up or stepping down voltages. Reason (R): Transformer is a device used in D.C. circuits. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Explanation
Assertion (A) is true: A transformer is designed to change the voltage level of an alternating current (AC) by using electromagnetic induction, either increasing (stepping up) or decreasing (stepping down) the voltage. Reason (R) is false: A transformer only works with alternating current (AC) because it relies on the changing magnetic field created by the alternating current to induce voltage in the secondary coil. It does not function with direct current (DC).
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
441
1997
(a) 7.2%
442
1997
(d) fructose
443
1997
(c) Coronary arteries
444
1997
(d) 46 g
445
1997
(b) A - 5; B - 4; C - 2; D - 1
446
1997
(c) triggers the immune system
447
1997
(b) Yeast
448
1996
(c) 1, 2 and 4
449
1996
(a) diamond to glass
450
1996
(c) A is true but R is false
What UPSC has tested in Science and Technology
Recent questions are application-based: electric vehicles, quantum computing, monoclonal antibodies, CRISPR, gravitational waves and space missions.
Older questions test school science: buoyancy, scattering of light, atomic structure and common compounds.
In Physics and Chemistry, explanations that depend on formulas or equations are left out where the original text could not be shown reliably.
The 2025 paper’s Science and Technology questions covered EVs, UAVs, coal gasification, CL-20, Majorana 1, monoclonal antibodies, GAGAN and ISRO missions.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Science and Technology?
This page covers 473 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Science and Technology, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Science and Technology chapters have the most questions?
Biology: Zoology has the most with 115 questions, then Miscellaneous with 68, Biology: Botany with 37, Space and Space Technology with 36 and Information and Communication Technology with 32.
How should I revise Science and Technology from these questions?
Take the technology chapters first, because recent papers favour them, then use the Physics, Chemistry and Biology chapters for basics. Each chapter page lists the facts UPSC has tested and has an answer key.
Why do some Chemistry and Physics questions look missing?
Questions whose explanations depend on chemical formulas or equations that could not be shown correctly were left out, rather than risk a wrong formula. The questions that remain have clear explanations in plain words.