Science and Technology: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
473 previous year UPSC Prelims Science and Technology questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, in 21 chapters. Biology: Zoology is the largest, followed by Miscellaneous (energy, vehicles and materials), Botany, Space and ICT. Recent papers lean on applied technology in the news, while older ones lean on school-level physics, chemistry and biology. Filter by chapter to revise one area at a time.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 341–350 of 473 questions
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UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
Q341. A radioactive substance has a half-life of four months. Three-fourth of the substance would decay in:
Explanation
The half-life of a radioactive substance is the time it takes for half of the substance to decay. After each half-life:
At the end of 1 half-life (4 months), 50% of the substance remains. At the end of 2 half-lives (8 months), 25% of the substance remains, meaning 75% (three-fourths) of the substance has decayed. Thus, it takes 8 months for three-fourths of the substance to decay.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
Q342. Which one of the following is NOT radioactive?
Explanation
Astatine, Francium, and Tritium are radioactive elements:
Astatine is a halogen with no stable isotopes.
Francium is an alkali metal, highly unstable and radioactive. Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. Zirconium is not radioactive. It is a stable, non-radioactive metal widely used in industries like nuclear reactors and construction.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Chemistry: Physical Chemistry
Q343. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Characteristic)
List-II (Particle)
A. Zero mass
1. Positron
B. Fractional charge
2. Neutrino
C. Fractional spin
3. Quark
D. Integral spin
4. Photon
Explanation
A is matched with 2: Neutrino is a particle with almost zero mass and no electric charge, making it the correct match for zero mass. B is matched with 3: Quarks are fundamental particles with fractional charges, such as +2/3 or -1/3. C is matched with 1: Positrons, the antimatter counterparts of electrons, possess fractional spin, matching this characteristic. D is matched with 4: Photons are elementary particles of light with an integral spin of 1, classifying them as bosons. Direction: The following item consists of two statements. One labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as "Reason (R). You have to answer this item using the code given below: (2000)
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Chemistry: Inorganic Chemistry
Q344. Consider the following statements with reference to the periodic table of chemical elements: 1. Ionisation potential gradually decreases along a period. 2. In a group of elements, electron affinity decreases as the atomic weight increases. 3. In a given period, electronegativity decreases as the atomic number increases. Which of these statement (s) is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Ionization potential (or Energy) increases across a period (left to right) because of increasing nuclear charge, which leads to a stronger attraction between the electrons and the nucleus, making electron removal harder. The effective nuclear charge (Z_eff) increases as protons are added, while shielding remains nearly constant.
Statement 2 is correct: Electron affinity generally becomes less negative down a group. As the atomic size increases, the added electron is farther from the nucleus and experiences greater shielding, reducing the energy released during electron addition. Across a period, electron affinity generally becomes more negative, reflecting stronger attraction to added electrons. Thus, in a group of elements, electron affinity decreases as atomic weight increases.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Electronegativity increases across a period due to increasing nuclear charge, which enhances the ability to attract bonding electrons. However, group-wise, it decreases as atomic size and shielding increase, reducing the effective pull of the nucleus on bonding electrons.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Botany
Q345. Which organelle in the cell, other than the nucleus contains DNA?
Explanation
The mitochondrion is an organelle in the cell that contains its own DNA. Unlike most of the cell’s DNA, which is found in the nucleus, mitochondria have their own small circular DNA. This mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) encodes essential proteins involved in energy production through cellular respiration. Mitochondria are often referred to as the "powerhouses of the cell" due to their role in ATP synthesis. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Golgi Apparatus: Membrane-bound organelle; modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids; consists of cisternae; involved in glycoprotein and glycolipid formation. Lysosomes: Membrane-bound vesicles; contain hydrolytic enzymes; digest carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids; play role in intracellular digestion; known as "suicide bags" due to potential self-digestion. Centrioles: Cylindrical structures; composed of microtubules; organize microtubules during cell division; form mitotic spindle; located near nucleus in animal cells; do not contain DNA.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Botany
Q346. "Athlete’s Foot" is a disease’ caused by
Explanation
Athlete’s Foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a fungal infection caused by a group of fungi called dermatophytes, which thrive in warm, moist environments like those found in shoes. It primarily affects the skin of the feet, causing itching, redness, and scaling. It is highly contagious and spreads through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
Bacterial infections are caused by microorganisms like Staphylococcus or Streptococcus. These can lead to conditions like pneumonia, tuberculosis, and food poisoning. Unlike fungal infections, bacterial infections can usually be treated with antibiotics. Protozoans are single-celled organisms that can cause diseases like malaria (caused by Plasmodium), amoebic dysentery (caused by Entamoeba histolytica), and sleeping sickness (caused by Trypanosoma). They are typically transmitted through contaminated water or insect bites. Nematodes, or roundworms, are parasitic worms that can infect humans, causing diseases like ascariasis, filariasis, and hookworm infection. These are usually transmitted through contaminated soil or food.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Botany
Q347. Epiphytes are plants which depend on other plants for:
Explanation
Epiphytes, commonly known as "air plants," are plants that depend on other plants primarily for mechanical support. They grow on the surface of other plants (like trees) to access better light and air circulation, but they do not take nutrients from the host plant. While they do not parasitize the host but they can absorb water and nutrients from rain, dew, and air humidity through specialized structures like spongy roots. Epiphytes are typically found in humid environments and include species like orchids, mosses, and ferns. They do not rely on the host for food or shade, as they can photosynthesize and derive most of their nutrients from the air and rain.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q348. In the eye donation, which part of the eye is transplanted from the donor?
Explanation
In eye donation, the part of the eye that is transplanted is the cornea. The cornea is the clear, dome-shaped front surface of the eye that allows light to enter and is responsible for focusing light onto the retina. It can become damaged due to injury, disease, or aging. A corneal transplant replaces the damaged cornea with healthy tissue from a deceased donor.
Option (b) is incorrect: The lens is located behind the cornea and focuses light onto the retina. It is not transplanted during eye donation, as it can be replaced with an artificial lens in procedures like cataract surgery.
Option (c) is incorrect: The retina is a sensitive tissue lining the back of the eye that converts light into neural signals. Retinal damage cannot currently be treated through transplantation during eye donation.
Option (d) is incorrect: The whole eye is not transplanted due to the complexity of the organ and the high risk of rejection.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q349. A man whose blood group is not known meets with a serious accident and needs blood transfusion immediately. Which one of the blood groups mentioned below and readily available in the hospital will be safe for transfusion?
Explanation
Option (a) is correct: O, Rh- blood group is known as the universal donor because it does not have A, B, or Rh antigens. If the patient’s blood type is not O, receiving blood with A or B antigens can trigger an immune response, leading to serious complications. If the patient is Rh-, receiving Rh+ blood can lead to the development of Rh antibodies, which can cause problems in future pregnancies or transfusions. Therefore, O, Rh- blood group will be safe for transfusion if the blood group of the patient is not known.
Option (b) is incorrect: If the recipient is Rh-negative, transfusion of Rh+ blood can cause an immune reaction, leading to complications like hemolysis or sensitization.
Option (c) is incorrect: AB, Rh- has both A and B antigens, which can trigger an immune response in individuals with A, B, or O blood groups.
Option (d) is incorrect: AB, Rh+ blood group is highly specific and can only be safely given to individuals with the AB, Rh+ blood group. It is not suitable for transfusion in emergencies where the recipient’s blood group is unknown.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q350. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Achievement in genetics)
List-II (Scientists)
A. Discovery of transduction and conjugation in bacteria
1. Khurana
B. Establishing the sex-linked inheritance
2. Kornberg
C. Isolation of DNA polymerase from E. coli
3. Lederberg
D. Establishing the complete genetic code
4. Morgan
5. Ochoa
Explanation
A is matched with 3: Lederberg discovered bacterial conjugation (exchange of genetic material between bacteria) and transduction (transfer of DNA between bacteria via viruses). B is matched with 4: Thomas Hunt Morgan’s work with fruit flies (Drosophila) provided strong evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance and firmly established the concept of sex-linked genes. C is matched with 2: Kornberg isolated DNA polymerase I from Escherichia coli, which was crucial for understanding DNA replication. D is matched with 1: Har Gobind Khorana played a significant role in deciphering the genetic code, which specifies how the sequence of nucleotides in DNA translates into the sequence of amino acids in proteins.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
341
2001
(c) 8 months
342
2001
(d) Zirconium
343
2001
(a) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4
344
2001
(b) 2 only
345
2001
(d) Mitochondrion
346
2001
(b) Fungus
347
2001
(b) Mechanical support
348
2001
(a) Cornea
349
2001
(a) O, Rh-
350
2001
(d) A - 3; B - 4; C - 2; D - 1
What UPSC has tested in Science and Technology
Recent questions are application-based: electric vehicles, quantum computing, monoclonal antibodies, CRISPR, gravitational waves and space missions.
Older questions test school science: buoyancy, scattering of light, atomic structure and common compounds.
In Physics and Chemistry, explanations that depend on formulas or equations are left out where the original text could not be shown reliably.
The 2025 paper’s Science and Technology questions covered EVs, UAVs, coal gasification, CL-20, Majorana 1, monoclonal antibodies, GAGAN and ISRO missions.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Science and Technology?
This page covers 473 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Science and Technology, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Science and Technology chapters have the most questions?
Biology: Zoology has the most with 115 questions, then Miscellaneous with 68, Biology: Botany with 37, Space and Space Technology with 36 and Information and Communication Technology with 32.
How should I revise Science and Technology from these questions?
Take the technology chapters first, because recent papers favour them, then use the Physics, Chemistry and Biology chapters for basics. Each chapter page lists the facts UPSC has tested and has an answer key.
Why do some Chemistry and Physics questions look missing?
Questions whose explanations depend on chemical formulas or equations that could not be shown correctly were left out, rather than risk a wrong formula. The questions that remain have clear explanations in plain words.