Science and Technology: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
473 previous year UPSC Prelims Science and Technology questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, in 21 chapters. Biology: Zoology is the largest, followed by Miscellaneous (energy, vehicles and materials), Botany, Space and ICT. Recent papers lean on applied technology in the news, while older ones lean on school-level physics, chemistry and biology. Filter by chapter to revise one area at a time.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 221–230 of 473 questions
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UPSC 2008Science and Technology · Biology: Botany
Q221. Consider the following statements about probiotic food: 1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans. 2. Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Probiotic foods are those that contain live microorganisms, typically bacteria or yeast, which confer health benefits to the host (usually humans) when consumed in adequate amounts. Common examples include sauerkraut, miso, tempeh, pickles, lassi, kombucha, and natto.
Statement 1 is correct: Probiotic food contains live beneficial bacteria, such as Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium, which promote gut health. These bacteria are often present in fermented foods like yogurt, kimchi, and kefir.
Statement 2 is correct: Probiotic food plays a key role in maintaining a healthy gut flora by balancing the microorganisms in the digestive system. This is crucial for digestion, immune function, and preventing gastrointestinal disorders such as diarrhea and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
UPSC 2008Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q222. In which of the following kinds of organisms is the phenomenon found wherein the female kills the male after copulation?
Explanation
The intriguing phenomenon of sexual cannibalism, where the female kills the male after copulation, is observed in some species of spiders. In certain species like the Australian redback spider and the black widow, the female spider consumes the male after mating.
Option (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:
Dragonflies do not exhibit sexual cannibalism in the same way spiders do. While females may sometimes be aggressive toward males, they do not typically kill them after copulation. In honeybees, the male (drone) dies after mating, but this is not due to the female killing him. After mating, the drone’s genitalia are ripped off during copulation, leading to death. Pit vipers, such as rattlesnakes, do not exhibit sexual cannibalism. After mating, the male and female go separate ways. There is no phenomenon where the female kills the male after copulation.
UPSC 2008Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q223. For which one of the following snakes is the diet mainly composed of other snakes?
Explanation
The king cobra (Ophiophagus hannah) is a snake whose diet primarily consists of other snakes, including venomous species such as kraits, pythons, and even other cobras. The name "Ophiophagus" literally means "snake-eater." King Cobras are solitary creatures and are primarily active during the day (diurnal). King Cobras are found in forests, grasslands, and hilly terrains across South and Southeast Asia. The King Cobra is the longest venomous snake in the world, growing up to 5.6 meters (18.5 feet).
UPSC 2008Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q224. What is the pH level of blood of a normal person?
Explanation
The pH level of blood in a normal person typically ranges from 7.35 to 7.45. This is considered slightly alkaline and is crucial for maintaining the proper function of enzymes and other biochemical processes in the body. The normal pH range of blood is tightly regulated by the body through mechanisms like buffer systems (such as the bicarbonate buffer system) to prevent drastic shifts in pH that could be harmful. A pH below 7.35 is considered acidosis, while a pH above 7.45 is considered alkalosis. Both conditions can disrupt normal physiological processes. The body maintains this narrow pH range to ensure optimal conditions for enzyme activity, oxygen transport, and metabolic reactions.
UPSC 2008Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q225. Assertion (A): In human body, liver has important role in fat digestion. Reason (R): Liver produces two important fat-digesting enzymes.
Explanation
Assertion (A) is true: The liver plays a crucial role in the digestion of fats. The liver’s primary role is to produce bile, which is essential for the digestion and absorption of fats. Bile is stored in the gallbladder and released into the small intestine when fat is detected in the stomach. Bile emulsifies fats by breaking them down into smaller droplets. This makes it easier for digestive enzymes, primarily lipase from the pancreas, to act on the fats and break them down further. Reason (R) is false: The liver does not produce fat-digesting enzymes. The production of fat-digesting enzymes occurs in the pancreas, not the liver. Lipase enzyme is secreted by the pancreas and is responsible for breaking down triglycerides (fats) into glycerol and fatty acids. Lipase works on the small fat droplets that have been emulsified by bile.
UPSC 2008Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q226. Among the following, which one lays eggs and does not produce young ones directly?
Explanation
Option (a) is correct:
The echidna is a monotreme, a group of egg-laying mammals that includes the platypus and echidna. Unlike most mammals, monotremes do not give birth to live young. They lay eggs and after laying eggs, the female echidna incubates them in a special pouch-like structure on her abdomen. Once the eggs hatch, the mother nurses her young by secreting milk from mammary glands, though monotremes do not have nipples. The milk oozes through the skin and the young lap it up.They are found in Australia and New Guinea and are adapted to a variety of environments, including forests and deserts. Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
Kangaroos are marsupials, meaning they give birth to live young that are underdeveloped at birth. The baby, called a joey, continues to develop in the mother’s pouch. Porcupines are placental mammals and they give birth to live young. These mammals develop their young inside the mother’s body before birth. Whales are placental mammals and give birth to live young after a long gestation period.
UPSC 2008Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q227. The release of which one of the following into ponds and wells helps in controlling the mosquitoes?
Explanation
The Gambusia fish (Gambusia affinis) or mosquito fish is highly effective in controlling mosquito populations in stagnant water such as ponds and wells. These fish feed on mosquito larvae, reducing the number of adult mosquitoes. As biological control agents, Gambusia fish offer a natural and chemical-free method for controlling mosquitoes. They are particularly useful in limiting the spread of diseases like malaria, dengue, and Zika. By consuming mosquito larvae in standing water, they help decrease the overall mosquito population, supporting public health efforts.
UPSC 2008Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q228. Among the following, which one is not an ape?
Explanation
Primates are a diverse group of mammals divided into two major categories: monkeys and apes. While monkeys and apes share common ancestors, they differ significantly in their characteristics, behavior, and evolutionary history.
Option (c) is correct: Langurs are Old World monkeys(and not ape) and belong to the family Cercopithecidae. Unlike apes, langurs have tails, a key feature that distinguishes them from apes. They are primarily found in South and Southeast Asia. These monkeys are known for their long limbs and often live in large social groups. Langurs feed on leaves, fruits, and seeds, and are often seen foraging in groups. Their tails help them maintain balance while moving through the trees. They are also much smaller in size than the great apes like gorillas. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:
Gibbons are lesser apes, belonging to the family Hylobatidae. They are known for their remarkable brachiation (swinging from tree to tree using their long arms), making them one of the most agile primates. Gibbons are found in Southeast Asia and are relatively small compared to other apes. Gorillas are great apes, the largest of all living primates belonging to the family Hominidae. Gorillas are native to Central Africa and live in groups led by a dominant male known as a silverback. Gorillas are primarily terrestrial, spending most of their time on the ground, unlike the gibbon, which is arboreal. Gorillas, like all apes, do not have tails, and they share a close genetic relationship with humans. Orangutans are great apes of the genus Pongo. They are highly intelligent and spend most of their time in trees, primarily in the rainforests of Borneo and Sumatra. Orangutans have remarkable cognitive abilities, using tools and even creating nests to sleep in.
UPSC 2007Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q229. NASA’s Deep Impact space mission was employed to take detailed pictures of which comet nucleus?
Explanation
Option (d) is correct: Tempel 1 was the target of NASA’s Deep Impact mission launched in 2005. The mission involved sending an impactor spacecraft to collide with the comet’s nucleus, creating a crater and allowing scientists to study the composition and structure of the comet’s interior. The mission provided valuable data about the formation of the solar system.
Option (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Halley’s Comet is one of the most famous comets which is known for its periodic appearance every 76 years. It was last observed in detail by the European Space Agency’s Giotto mission in 1986. Hale-Bopp was a bright comet that became visible to the naked eye in 1997. It was extensively studied by ground-based telescopes and space observatories. Comet Hyakutake was another bright comet that passed close to Earth in 1996. It was studied by ground-based telescopes and space observatories but was not the target of the Deep Impact mission.
UPSC 2007Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q230. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair (a) is correctly matched: COBE (Cosmic Background Explorer) was a satellite launched by NASA to study the cosmic microwave background radiation and provide evidence supporting the Big Bang theory. Pair (b) is correctly matched: The FLAG Alcatel-Lucent Optical Network (FALCON) submarine cable system is a 11,859 km undersea cable connecting multiple countries, including India, Sri Lanka, and Egypt, facilitating international telecommunications. Pair (c) is correctly matched: Discovery was a part of NASA’s Space Shuttle program and completed numerous missions. It conducted various missions, including deploying satellites, servicing the Hubble Space Telescope, and assembling the International Space Station (ISS). Pair (d) is incorrectly matched: Space Shuttle Atlantis was one of NASA’s reusable spacecraft used for human spaceflight missions. It is not a space station but a space shuttle that transported astronauts and cargo to space.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
221
2008
(c) Both 1 and 2
222
2008
(c) Spider
223
2008
(d) King cobra
224
2008
(c) 7.35-7.45
225
2008
(c) A is true but R is false
226
2008
(a) Echidna
227
2008
(c) Gambusia fish
228
2008
(c) Langur
229
2007
(d) Tempel 1
230
2007
(d) Atlantis: Space station
What UPSC has tested in Science and Technology
Recent questions are application-based: electric vehicles, quantum computing, monoclonal antibodies, CRISPR, gravitational waves and space missions.
Older questions test school science: buoyancy, scattering of light, atomic structure and common compounds.
In Physics and Chemistry, explanations that depend on formulas or equations are left out where the original text could not be shown reliably.
The 2025 paper’s Science and Technology questions covered EVs, UAVs, coal gasification, CL-20, Majorana 1, monoclonal antibodies, GAGAN and ISRO missions.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Science and Technology?
This page covers 473 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Science and Technology, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Science and Technology chapters have the most questions?
Biology: Zoology has the most with 115 questions, then Miscellaneous with 68, Biology: Botany with 37, Space and Space Technology with 36 and Information and Communication Technology with 32.
How should I revise Science and Technology from these questions?
Take the technology chapters first, because recent papers favour them, then use the Physics, Chemistry and Biology chapters for basics. Each chapter page lists the facts UPSC has tested and has an answer key.
Why do some Chemistry and Physics questions look missing?
Questions whose explanations depend on chemical formulas or equations that could not be shown correctly were left out, rather than risk a wrong formula. The questions that remain have clear explanations in plain words.