Science and Technology: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
473 previous year UPSC Prelims Science and Technology questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, in 21 chapters. Biology: Zoology is the largest, followed by Miscellaneous (energy, vehicles and materials), Botany, Space and ICT. Recent papers lean on applied technology in the news, while older ones lean on school-level physics, chemistry and biology. Filter by chapter to revise one area at a time.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 161–170 of 473 questions
Browse Science and Technology chaptersBrowse by year
UPSC 2011Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q161. Which is the difference between asteroids and comets? 1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material. 2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury. 3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Asteroids are primarily composed of rock and metal and are remnants from the early solar system. In contrast, Comets are made of ice, dust, and rocky material and originate from the Kuiper Belt or Oort Cloud.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Asteroids are predominantly located in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. Comets originate from distant regions of the solar system: short-period comets come from the Kuiper Belt beyond Neptune, and long-period comets originate from the distant Oort Cloud. They are not typically found between Venus and Mercury.
Statement 3 is correct: As comets approach the Sun, the heat causes their icy components to sublimate, forming a glowing coma and often a visible tail that points away from the Sun due to solar wind. Asteroids, being rocky and lacking volatile materials, do not exhibit such features.
UPSC 2011Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q162. Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when: 1. The orbit is geosynchronous. 2. The orbit is circular. 3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator. 4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Geostationary Orbit is a type of geosynchronous orbit. The earth rotates in the same direction that satellites do. It lasts for roughly 24 hours and holds its place in relation to the earth.
Statement 2 is correct: The orbit must be nearly circular, ensuring that the satellite’s distance from Earth remains constant throughout its revolution. An elliptical orbit would cause the satellite to move closer and farther from Earth, disrupting its stationary position.
Statement 3 is correct: A Geostationary Orbit (GEO) is a special case of a Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO) where the satellite orbits exactly in the Earth’s equatorial plane (0° inclination). This ensures that the satellite appears fixed over a specific point on Earth.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Geostationary orbit is at an altitude of around 35,786 km.
UPSC 2011Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q163. The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?
Explanation
In severe winter, a lake’s surface freezes while the bottom remains liquid due to the anomalous density behavior of water. Unlike most substances, water reaches its maximum density at 4°C, meaning that as it cools, denser water sinks while colder, lighter water (below 4°C) stays at the surface. When temperatures drop below 0°C, the surface water freezes first, forming an insulating ice layer that prevents further heat loss from the deeper water, keeping it in a liquid state. This phenomenon protects aquatic life, as it prevents the entire lake from freezing solid
UPSC 2011Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q164. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why? 1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates. 2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates. 3. They can be installed in wastewater treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Microbial fuel cells (MFCs) are a bioelectrochemical technique, proposed to generate power using electrons from biological reactions in microorganisms.
Statement 1 is correct: These devices primarily use bacteria as catalysts to break down organic and inorganic substances, generating electrical current.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Microorganisms oxidise organic compounds, not inorganic substrates in the anode chamber, producing electrons and protons (reaction of anodes).
Statement 3 is correct: An MFC typically consists of two electrodes: the anode and the cathode. At the anode, bacteria decompose organic matter in wastewater, producing electrons and protons. The electrons travel through an external circuit to the cathode, generating electricity, while the protons move from the anode to the cathode. At the cathode, the electrons and protons combine with an electron acceptor, such as oxygen, to form water. As a result, MFCs can be implemented in wastewater treatment facilities to purify water and generate electricity.
UPSC 2011Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q165. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
Explanation
Moderator is used in a nuclear reactor for slowing down the neutrons produced during the fission reaction so that the chain reaction can be sustained. Due to its high moderating ratio and low neutron absorption cross section, heavy water makes a good moderator. Deuterium oxide, popularly known as heavy water (D₂O), is a hydrogen isotope with a mass double that of regular hydrogen and oxygen. However, In nuclear power reactors, heavy water can also be utilized as a coolant.
UPSC 2011Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q166. A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers? 1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils. 2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils. 3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Trans fatty acids (TFA) or trans fats are a form of unsaturated fat and come in both natural and artificial forms. Trans fats are the most harmful type of fats which can cause an adverse effect on a human body than any other dietary constituent.
Statement 1 is correct: Artificial trans fats are generated through an industrial process that adds hydrogen to liquid vegetable oils to form them more solid. That is hydrogen is made to react with the oil to produce fats that resemble pure ghee or butter. If items do not contain trans-fats, it means the food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils and animal fats/oils.
Statement 2 is incorrect: This is incorrect because not all animal fats contain trans fats. While small amounts of naturally occurring trans fats are found in some animal products, the harmful trans fats that raise cardiovascular risks are primarily from industrial hydrogenation, not from natural animal fats.
Statement 3 is correct: If items do not contain trans fats, it suggests that the oils used are less likely to harm the cardiovascular health of consumers, as oils associated with trans fats typically raise LDL (bad) cholesterol and lower HDL (good) cholesterol, contributing to plaque buildup in arteries and increasing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
UPSC 2011Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q167. What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp? 1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semiconductor material. 2. The average lifespan of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp. 3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: An LED is a type of semiconductor light source with two leads. It is a p-n junction diode, which when turned on emits light. A fluorescent lamp is a low-pressure mercury-vapour gas-discharge light. In a CFL, an electric current is driven through a tube containing argon and a small amount of mercury vapor. This generates invisible ultraviolet light that excites a fluorescent coating (called phosphor) on the inside of the tube, which then emits visible light.
Statement 2 is incorrect: LED bulbs are much more efficient than CFL bulbs in terms of power consumption and life years.
Statement 3 is correct: LED bulbs consume less power as compared to CFL. LED bulbs are expensive as compared to CFL bulbs. LED bulbs are much more efficient than CFL bulbs.
UPSC 2011Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q168. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?
Explanation
Aspartame is a non-saccharide artificial sweetener approximately 200 times sweeter than sucrose, and is commonly used as a substitute of sugar in foods and beverages. The commercial names for it are NutraSweet, Equal, and Canderel. It is a methyl ester of the aspartic acid / phenylalanine dipeptide. Since Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation.
UPSC 2011Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q169. Recently, "oilzapper" was in the news. What is it?
Explanation
Oilzapper is an eco-friendly technology for oil sludges and oil spills remediation. Oilzapping is the new technique using bacteria to get rid of oil spills. It is a bioremediation technique that involves the use of oil zapping bacteria. In essence, Oilzapper is a concoction of five distinct bacterial strains that have been immobilised and combined with a carrier substance (powdered corn cob). The Oilzapper consumes the hydrocarbon molecules found in crude oil and oily sludge, a dangerous hydrocarbon waste product produced by oil refineries, and transforms them into harmless CO₂ and water. This is exactly what its witty name implies.
UPSC 2011Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q170. A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is
Explanation
The blood group of the couple is AB Positive and O Negative. So their biological sons will have either blood group A or B. Thus we can infer that the blood group of the adopted son will be O.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
161
2011
(b) 1 and 3 only
162
2011
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
163
2011
(c) The density of water is maximum at 4°C
164
2011
(c) 1 and 3 only
165
2011
(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
166
2011
(c) 1 and 3 only
167
2011
(c) 1 and 3 only
168
2011
(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation.
169
2011
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
170
2011
(a) O positive
What UPSC has tested in Science and Technology
Recent questions are application-based: electric vehicles, quantum computing, monoclonal antibodies, CRISPR, gravitational waves and space missions.
Older questions test school science: buoyancy, scattering of light, atomic structure and common compounds.
In Physics and Chemistry, explanations that depend on formulas or equations are left out where the original text could not be shown reliably.
The 2025 paper’s Science and Technology questions covered EVs, UAVs, coal gasification, CL-20, Majorana 1, monoclonal antibodies, GAGAN and ISRO missions.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Science and Technology?
This page covers 473 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Science and Technology, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Science and Technology chapters have the most questions?
Biology: Zoology has the most with 115 questions, then Miscellaneous with 68, Biology: Botany with 37, Space and Space Technology with 36 and Information and Communication Technology with 32.
How should I revise Science and Technology from these questions?
Take the technology chapters first, because recent papers favour them, then use the Physics, Chemistry and Biology chapters for basics. Each chapter page lists the facts UPSC has tested and has an answer key.
Why do some Chemistry and Physics questions look missing?
Questions whose explanations depend on chemical formulas or equations that could not be shown correctly were left out, rather than risk a wrong formula. The questions that remain have clear explanations in plain words.