67 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on Parliament make this the largest Polity chapter here, spread across 23 exam years from 1997 to 2025. UPSC keeps returning to Money Bill and Finance Bill, joint sittings, parliamentary committees, the Speaker, and the special powers of the Rajya Sabha. Every explanation names the Article or rule that decides the answer.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 11–20 of 67 questions
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UPSC 2022Polity · Parliament
Q11. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The election date of the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha is not fixed in the Constitution. However, according to Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, The Speaker decides the date of election of the Deputy Speaker. The election usually happens after the Speaker’s election, but there is no constitutional or statutory time limit for it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no such mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India.
Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house, during such time he/she enjoys the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The appointment of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not initiated by the Speaker. Instead, a member of the Lok Sabha moves the motion for the election, which is then put to vote in the House. While the ruling party historically held this position, in recent decades, a convention has developed of electing a member from the opposition. There is no rule or convention requiring the Prime Minister to second the motion, and any member of the House may do so.
Exam tip:
For S2, Red Flag: "Mandatory provision". For S4, aligns with Function-person/organisation/ministry match trap as its easy to manipulate to make it false.
UPSC 2022Polity · Parliament
Q12. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency. 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.
Statement 2 is correct: A No-Confidence Motion can only be initiated and passed in the Lok Sabha (House of the People). The Rajya Sabha (Upper House) cannot move or pass a No-Confidence Motion against the government.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Article 61, when a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The impeachment resolution needs to be passed by not less than a majority of two-thirds of the total membership in each house.
UPSC 2022Polity · Parliament
Q13. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four rank viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The constitution mentions the word ‘council of ministers’, however it doesn’t classify ministers into 4 categories. Generally, the Prime Minister and other Ministers are collectively known as the Council of Ministers.
Statement 2 is correct: As per 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, the total number of Central Council of Ministers/State Council of Ministers including Prime Minister/ Chief Minister should not be more than 15% of total strength of Lok Sabha. It aimed at curbing the growing size of Cabinets at both the Union and State levels, which had often led to inefficient governance, excessive expenditure, and political instability. The goal was to promote good governance, encourage coalition politics, and reduce the influence of "buying loyalty" by offering ministerial positions.
Exam tip:
For S1, Trap Alert: "The Constitution classifies..." UPSC loves to trap you with "Constitution does this" when in reality it’s convention, rule, or practice. Hence likely false, eliminates options A and C.
UPSC 2020Polity · Parliament
Q14. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable sets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. 2. A specified portion of each MP fund must benefit SC/ST populations. 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. 4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all work under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets based on the locally felt needs to be taken up in their Constituencies.
Statement 2 is correct: M.Ps are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15% of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5% for areas inhabited by S.T. population.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The released funds under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable i.e. if the money is not utilised, it gets carried to the next year subject to the fulfillment of certain criterion.
Statement 4 is correct: The district authority should visit and inspect at least 10% of the works every year. It is also expected to involve the MPs in such activities.
UPSC 2020Polity · Parliament
Q15. Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Constitution under article 173(a) lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen as a member of the state legislature, such as - He must be a citizen of India. He must take an oath or affirmation before the person the Election Commission has designated for this purpose. He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. while a one becomes voter at the age of 18. He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, a person convicted of an offense and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more will be disqualified from the date of conviction. This disqualification remains in effect for six additional years after their release. Hence, the disqualification is not permanent.
UPSC 2020Polity · Parliament
Q16. Consider the following statements: 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 85(1), the Constitution gives the power to the President to summon a session of Parliament to meet at such a place as he/she thinks fit. The gap between two sessions must not exceed 6 months.
Statement 2 is incorrect: By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year. However the Constitution does not stipulate it. Article 85(1) of the Indian Constitution states "The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet, and six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session." This means that according to the Constitution of India, Parliament must meet at least once every six months, but the number of sessions is not fixed.
Statement 3 is correct: There is no provision about the minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
UPSC 2020Polity · Parliament
Q17. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
Explanation
Option (b) is correct: The Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers with Lok Sabha in matters like - The impeachment of the President, Removal of the vice-president, Constitutional amendments, and Removal of the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Option (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
Rajya Sabha enjoys exclusive powers in the matter of creating new All India Services. In the matter of removal of government, Rajya Sabha has unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers is responsible only to Lok Sabha and not to the Rajya Sabha. Thus, a no-confidence motion cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha has less or no powers in the matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bill, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha.
UPSC 2020Polity · Parliament
Q18. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include "The Macro Economic Framework Statement". The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by:
Explanation
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 aims to ensure fiscal discipline in India by setting targets for government borrowing, fiscal deficits, and public debt. Its objective is to reduce the fiscal deficit and maintain macroeconomic stability. As per the act the Central Government is required to lay before both Houses of Parliament the following fiscal policy statements every financial year, alongside the annual financial statement and demands for grants:
Q19. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: There is no bar on how many offices can be exempted from the purview of the law. In the past the Supreme Court also held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliament has also enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been amended five times to expand the exempted list. Amended was made in the following years: 1960, 1977, 1993, 2006, 2013.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The expression ‘office of profit’ is mentioned in the Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution but it has neither been ‘defined’ in the Indian Constitution nor in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Exam tip:
For S3, The word "defines" is a strong and rigid claim. Think practically: The Constitution is not a dictionary. It doesn’t explicitly list out or define "Office of Profit". Hence likely false. Gives option A as correct..
UPSC 2019Polity · Parliament
Q20. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? 1. Ad Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament. 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee 3. Finance Commission 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission 5. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
In India, independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, and electricity play a crucial role in ensuring that these sectors function efficiently and fairly.
Statement 1 is correct: Ad Hoc Committee set up by Parliament:
Temporary committees formed for specific purposes, including reviewing regulators.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee: Main body responsible for scrutinizing independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, and electricity.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Finance Commission: Primarily deals with financial devolution between the Union and States, not regulatory reviews.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC): Was a one-time commission (2011) to review financial sector laws, not independent regulators.
Statement 5 is incorrect: NITI Aayog: Works as a policy think tank, but does not formally review regulators.
Exam tip:
S5, NITI is policy advisory, not a regulatory reviewer. No enforcement or oversight mandate. Most Likely false, eliminates options C and D. Now For S3, Ask yourself:
Does the Finance Commission ever intervene in the operations of TRAI, IRDAI, SEBI, CERC etc.? Answer: No, be-cause it’s not even within its functional mandate. Think in terms of function-entity misalignment in these. and you will reach at option A as correct.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
11
2022
(a) 1 and 3 only
12
2022
(b) 2 only
13
2022
(b) 2 only
14
2020
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
15
2020
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
16
2020
(c) 1 and 3 only
17
2020
(b) amending the Constitution
18
2020
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
19
2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
20
2019
(a) 1 and 2
What UPSC has tested in Parliament
A Money Bill (Article 110) can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha; the Rajya Sabha can only recommend changes, within fourteen days.
A joint sitting under Article 108 is not available for a Money Bill or a Constitution Amendment Bill.
There is no mention of a no-confidence motion in the Constitution; it arises from collective responsibility and the Lok Sabha’s rules.
The Rajya Sabha can empower Parliament to legislate on a State List subject by a two-thirds resolution of members present and voting (Article 249).
The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee; the Speaker appoints the Public Accounts Committee’s chairman.
A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution; a bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses.
Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted so far, under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Parliament?
This page covers 67 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Parliament (Polity), asked from 1997 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
What is a Money Bill and who can introduce it?
A bill dealing only with matters in Article 110, such as taxation and Consolidated Fund spending. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha on the President’s recommendation, and the Speaker certifies whether a bill is a Money Bill.
When can a joint sitting of Parliament be held?
Under Article 108, when the Houses disagree on an ordinary or financial bill after specified delays. It is not allowed for Money Bills or Constitution Amendment Bills. Only three joint sittings have occurred: 1961, 1978 and 2002.
Which is the largest committee of Parliament?
The Estimates Committee, with thirty members, all drawn from the Lok Sabha. The Public Accounts Committee has twenty-two members, fifteen from the Lok Sabha and seven from the Rajya Sabha.
What happens to pending bills when the Lok Sabha is dissolved?
A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses, as does a bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
Which special powers does the Rajya Sabha have?
It can pass a resolution by two-thirds of members present and voting that Parliament legislate on a State List subject in the national interest (Article 249), and can authorise the creation of new All-India Services (Article 312).
