Q141. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding cultural and educational rights?
Indian Polity and Governance: RAS Prelims MCQs
944 RAS Prelims practice MCQs on Indian polity and governance are on this page, in 12 chapters. They cover the framing of the Constitution, the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, the Directive Principles, the Union executive, Parliament and the judiciary, Union-State relations, emergency provisions, local government, constitutional bodies, public policy and the vigilance and accountability institutions. Each question has an answer and an explanation.
Practice questions based on the RPSC RAS Prelims syllabus. They follow the exam pattern but are not past-paper questions.
Showing 141–150 of 944 questions
Browse Indian Polity and Governance chapters
Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the features of writs:
I. Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual.
II. Prohibition can only be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
III. Certiorari can be issued against administrative authorities affecting rights of individuals.
IV. Quo Warranto can be sought by any interested person, not necessarily the aggrieved person.
V. Habeas Corpus cannot be issued against a private individual.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
I. Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual.
II. Prohibition can only be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
III. Certiorari can be issued against administrative authorities affecting rights of individuals.
IV. Quo Warranto can be sought by any interested person, not necessarily the aggrieved person.
V. Habeas Corpus cannot be issued against a private individual.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Explanation
One statement is incorrect because the writ of Habeas Corpus can indeed be issued against both public authorities and private individuals. This writ is a powerful tool to protect personal liberty against any form of unlawful detention. Other statements correctly describe the scope of Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto as per settled Indian constitutional jurisprudence and various landmark judicial precedents.
Q143. Which of the following does NOT constitute an exception to the general rule of equality under Article 14?
Explanation
Article 14 allows for reasonable classification based on intelligible differentia but prohibits arbitrary discrimination. While the President, foreign diplomats, and reasonable statutory classifications are recognized exceptions, differential treatment based solely on birthplace is generally prohibited under the right to equality. Such a distinction would violate the non-discrimination principles enshrined in both Articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution.
Q144. The principle of Rule of Law is embodied in which Article of the Constitution?
Explanation
Article 14 embodies the Rule of Law, a concept popularized by A.V. Dicey. It ensures that the law is supreme and that no person is above the law. This article includes two aspects: equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Together, they form the bedrock of the Indian democratic system, preventing arbitrary exercise of power by the State.
Q145. What is the most appropriate definition of a minority for the purpose of Article 30 in India?
Explanation
In the T.M.A. Pai Foundation case, the Supreme Court clarified that for the purposes of Article 30, a minority is determined in relation to the population of the State, not the whole of India. Since reorganization of states occurred on linguistic lines, the state is the appropriate unit to identify both linguistic and religious minorities entitled to constitutional protections.
Q146. Consider the following rights under Article 26:
I. Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
II. Right to acquire movable and immovable property.
III. Right to administer such property in accordance with law.
Which of the above right(s) is/are subject to public order, morality, and health?
I. Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
II. Right to acquire movable and immovable property.
III. Right to administer such property in accordance with law.
Which of the above right(s) is/are subject to public order, morality, and health?
Explanation
Article 26 guarantees collective religious rights to denominations. However, all rights under this article, including establishing institutions, acquiring property, and administering property, are expressly subject to public order, morality, and health. This ensures that while religious groups enjoy autonomy, their activities must not jeopardize the general welfare of society or the foundational values of the Constitution.
Q147. During the proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352, which Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended?
Explanation
Following the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21, even during a National Emergency. Article 20 relates to protection in respect of conviction for offences, and Article 21 relates to the right to life and personal liberty, representing non-derogable rights.
Q148. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The judiciary is explicitly mentioned under the definition of State in Article 12 of the Constitution.
Statement II: The Supreme Court has ruled that courts act as State when performing administrative functions, but not when exercising judicial functions.
Which of the following is correct?
Statement I: The judiciary is explicitly mentioned under the definition of State in Article 12 of the Constitution.
Statement II: The Supreme Court has ruled that courts act as State when performing administrative functions, but not when exercising judicial functions.
Which of the following is correct?
Explanation
Article 12 does not explicitly mention the judiciary in its definition of State. However, through judicial interpretation, the Supreme Court has clarified that when courts perform administrative functions, they fall under the definition of State. Conversely, while performing judicial functions, such as delivering judgments, they are not considered State within the meaning of Article 12 or the Bill of Rights.
Q149. Which of the following statements regarding Article 28 (freedom as to attendance at religious instruction) is incorrect?
Explanation
Under Article 28, no religious instruction may be given in institutions wholly maintained by the State, and a person in a recognised institution cannot be forced to attend religious instruction. So the statement that students can be compelled to attend it is incorrect.
Q150. If a citizen’s fundamental right under Article 19 is violated by a private individual without any state backing, what is the immediate effect regarding constitutional remedies?
Explanation
Fundamental Rights, including those under Article 19, are primarily protections against State action. If a private individual violates another person’s rights without any State involvement, the constitutional remedy under Article 32 is not typically available. In such cases, the aggrieved person must seek remedies under ordinary civil or criminal laws rather than filing a writ petition for a fundamental rights violation.Answer key for these questions
| Q | Correct answer |
|---|---|
| 141 | (d) The State cannot discriminate against minority management in granting financial aid. |
| 142 | (c) V only |
| 143 | (c) Differential treatment based solely on the birthplace of a citizen |
| 144 | (c) Article 14 |
| 145 | (b) A group with less than 50% population in a specific State. |
| 146 | (d) I, II, and III |
| 147 | (c) Articles 20 and 21 |
| 148 | (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct |
| 149 | (d) In educational institutions recognized by the State, students can be compelled to attend religious instruction. |
| 150 | (c) The citizen cannot invoke Article 32 as fundamental rights are generally enforced against the State. |
Key facts from Indian Polity and Governance
- The RPSC syllabus lists the Indian Constitution, the political system and governance, with public policy, vigilance and accountability bodies as part of the paper.
- Article-number questions are the commonest: for example Article 356 for President’s Rule, Article 324 for the Election Commission and Article 243K for the State Election Commission.
- Statement and assertion-reason questions test exceptions, so learn each provision with its limits.
- Questions on bodies ask for appointing authority, removing authority, tenure and the body to which the report goes.
- The Rajasthan-specific part of polity is on a separate page, with its own 8 chapters.
Frequently asked questions
How many RAS Prelims practice MCQs are there on Indian Polity and Governance?
This page has 944 practice MCQs on Indian Polity and Governance. Each has the correct answer, and most have an explanation.
Which chapters does the Indian polity set cover?
Twelve chapters: framing of the Constitution, Preamble and citizenship; Fundamental Rights; DPSP and Fundamental Duties; Union executive; Parliament; Union judiciary; Union-State relations; emergency provisions; local government; constitutional and statutory bodies; public policy and citizen charter; and vigilance and accountability.
Is polity part of the RAS Prelims syllabus?
Yes. The RPSC syllabus for General Knowledge includes the Indian Constitution, political system and governance, together with the political and administrative system of Rajasthan, which is covered on the separate Rajasthan polity page.
How should I revise polity for RAS Prelims?
Make a table of articles, bodies and amendments. Attempt each chapter, read the explanation for every miss and note the article number and the exception. Repeat the chapter after a few days, as polity facts are easy to confuse.