90 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2024 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 81–90 of 90 questions
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UPSC 2024Polity · Schedules
Q81. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992, amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Eighth Schedule contains languages recognised by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages, but presently, there are 22. They are Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992 Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003. Oriya was renamed as ‘Odia’ by the 96th Amendment Act of 2011.
UPSC 2024Polity · Miscellaneous
Q82. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’: 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on September 19, 2023. The Bill seeks to reserve one-third of the total number of seats in Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies for women. Key features of the Bill:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The next delimitation exercise, or redrawing of constituency boundaries, is scheduled to be held in 2026. Effectively, this means that the earliest implementation of the women’s quota in the Lok Sabha can be in the 2029 general election (19th Lok Sabha), rather than in next year’s polls.
Statement 2 is correct: The reservation will be effective after the census conducted after the commencement of this Bill has been published. Based on the census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women. The reservation will be provided for a period of 15 years. However, it shall continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct: The Bill reserves, as nearly as may be, one-third of all seats for women in Lok Sabha, state legislative assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi. This will also apply to the seats reserved for SCs and STs in Lok Sabha and state legislatures. Seats reserved for women will be rotated after each delimitation, as determined by a law made by Parliament.
UPSC 2024Polity · Miscellaneous
Q83. Consider the following statements: 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognises and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The authority to recognize and declare a community as a Scheduled Tribe is vested in the President of India under Article 342 of the Indian Constitution. The President issues a notification specifying the Scheduled Tribes in relation to a State or Union Territory, after consulting with the Governor of the concerned State. However, the Governor does not have independent authority to declare any community as a Scheduled Tribe.
Statement 2 is correct: The status of a Scheduled Tribe is State/ Union Territory-specific. A community recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in one State may not necessarily enjoy the same status in another State unless it is explicitly notified as such for that State by the President. This reflects the differing socio-economic and cultural contexts across States, as well as variations in tribal populations.
Exam tip:
S1 aligns with Function-person/organisation/ministry match trap as its easy to manipulate to make it false. Is it President or Governor?
UPSC 2024Polity · Miscellaneous
Q84. Consider the following pairs: S.No. Party Its Leader Bhartiya Jana Sangh Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 2 Socialist Party C. Rajagopalachari Congress for Democracy Jagjivan Ram 4 Swatantra Party Acharya Narendra Dev How many of the above are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Bharatiya Jana Sangh (BJS: Indian People’s Association) was established in 1951 by Shyama Prasad Mukherjee.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Rajagopalachari was associated with the Swatantra Party, not with the Socialist Party.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Jagjivan Ram formed the Congress for Democracy in 1977. It was established after Jagjivan Ram, Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna, and Nandini Satpathy parted ways with Indira Gandhi’s Indian National Congress, criticizing her leadership during the Emergency.
Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Acharya Narendra Dev was deeply involved in the peasant movement and held the position of president of the All-India Kisan Congress. He remained affiliated with the Socialist Party and later the Praja Socialist Party until his passing in 1956.
UPSC 2024Polity · Miscellaneous
Q85. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Part IXA of the Constitution was inserted by the Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992. It contains provisions for local self-government at the urban level (including powers of the municipalities).
Statement 2 is correct: Emergency provisions are outlined in Part XVIII of the Constitution, covering Articles 352 to 360, including National Emergency (Article 352), State Emergency (Article 356), and Financial Emergency (Article 360). These provisions empower the Central government to address any extraordinary situations effectively.
Statement 3 is correct: Part XX deals with the provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution (Art 368). Parliament may, in the exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this part.
UPSC 2024Geography · Places and Locations: Indian Geography
Q86. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?
Explanation
The Ganga River originates from the Gangotri Glacier in the Himalayas and flows into the Bay of Bengal. It drains about one-fourth of India’s land area and supports hundreds of millions of people. The river generally flows from northwest to southeast. The Yamuna River passes through the Delhi region and follows a southeastward path, roughly parallel to the Ganges. It eventually joins the Ganges near Prayagraj (Allahabad).
Option (b) is correct: The main left-bank tributaries of the Ganga are (from west to east)- in the order of joining:
1. Ramganga 2. Gomati
3. Ghaghara 4. Gandak
5. Kosi The major Right bank tributaries are Yamuna, Son, Punpun, Damodar, and Ajay. Among these, Yamuna is the largest and most significant.
Additional insight:
The Ganges River is formed at Devprayag in Uttarakhand, where the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers meet. Among them, Bhagirathi is considered the main source of the Ganges due to its mythological significance, while Alaknanda is hydrologically larger. Other important tributaries in the upper course include the Mandakini, Dhauliganga, and Pindar rivers.
UPSC 2024Geography · Places and Locations: World Geography
Q87. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:
Explanation
The longest border between any two countries in the world is between Canada and the United States, which spans approximately 8,891 kilometers (5,525 miles). The border is divided into two: the border shared with Canada by the continental United States and the border that the state of Alaska shares with northern Canada. Eight Canadian provinces and thirteen American states run along the shared boundary.
Additional insight:
The US-CANADA border is not only the longest border but also the longest undefended border in the world. Despite its length, there are no military fortifications along the entire stretch. The border between India and Bangladesh is the longest border India shares with any of its neighbors.
UPSC 2024Geography · Places and Locations: World Geography
Q88. Consider the following statements: 1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. 2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
The Red Sea is a narrow body of water. It stretches about 1,200 miles (1,930 km) southeast from Suez, Egypt. The sea ends at the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, which connects to the Gulf of Aden. From there, it leads into the Arabian Sea.
Statement 1 is correct: The Red Sea is located in a region characterized by arid and semi-arid climates, with very little rainfall throughout the year. The surrounding regions, such as parts of Egypt, Saudi Arabia, and Sudan, experience low annual precipitation. The average annual rainfall along the Red Sea coast is less than 100 mm(annually) in most areas, with some regions experiencing no rainfall at all. For example, the city of Jeddah, Saudi Arabia, on the Red Sea coast, has an annual rainfall of only about 80 mm.
Statement 2 is correct: The Red Sea is almost unique in that it does not receive significant inflows from any large rivers. While there are some small streams and wadis (seasonal rivers such as Wadi Fatimah) that flow into the Red Sea, they do not significantly contribute to the volume of water in the sea. The Red Sea’s water balance is mainly influenced by evaporation, with a very high rate due to the hot and dry climate. However, according to Britannica, no water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Additional insight:
The Nile River, which is the longest river in the world, does not flow into the Red Sea but instead empties into the Mediterranean Sea.
UPSC 2024Geography · Places and Locations: World Geography
Q89. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?
Explanation
Cote d’Ivoire (Ivory Coast) and Ghana are the two largest cocoa producers in the world, contributing over 60% of the global cocoa supply. Cote d’Ivoire alone produces about 40%, making it the top producer, while Ghana, the second-larg-est producer, is known for its high-quality cocoa beans. Cocoa from these countries is a key ingredient in the global chocolate industry, supplying major manufacturers like Nestlé, Mars, and Hershey. Their dominance in cocoa production is due to a tropical climate with hot, humid conditions, fertile soil ideal for cocoa cultivation, and a labor-intensive farming system supported by extensive smallholder networks.
UPSC 2024Geography · Places and Locations: World Geography
Q90. Consider the following countries: 1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
Explanation
The North Sea is a shallow, northeastern arm of the Atlantic Ocean located between the British Isles and the mainland of northwestern Europe and covering an area of 220,000 square miles (570,000 square km).
Option (b) is correct:
The sea is bordered by:
The island of Great Britain to the southwest and west, The Orkney and Shetland islands to the northwest, Norway to the northeast, Denmark to the east, Germany and the Netherlands to the southeast Belgium and France to the south.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
81
2024
(a) 1, 2 and 3
82
2024
(c) 2 and 3 only
83
2024
(b) 2 only
84
2024
(b) Only two
85
2024
(d) 1, 2 and 3
86
2024
(b) Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi
87
2024
(a) Canada and the United States of America
88
2024
(c) Both 1 and 2
89
2024
(c) Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana
90
2024
(b) Only two
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 90 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2024 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2024 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.