UPSC 2024 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Indri is endemic to the island country of Madagascar, specifically inhabiting the eastern rainforests. The unique geographical features and climate of Madagascar have facilitated the evolution of numerous species found nowhere else on Earth, including the Indri.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Elk is the largest and most advanced subspecies of red deer, found in North America and in the high mountains of Central Asia. It is a member of the deer family. Recent genetic studies suggest that the "red deer" may have three species:

European red deer.

Tibetan-West Chinese red deer.

Elk.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Bonobos and chimpanzees look very similar and both share 98.7% of their DNA with humans--making the two species our closest living relatives. Bonobos are usually a bit smaller, leaner, and darker than chimpanzees. They are found only in the Democratic Republic of Congo. Their discontinuous range extends from the Lualaba River in the east to the Kasai/Sankuru Rivers in the south and as far as the Congo River in the west and around Lake Tumba/Lake Mai-Ndombe.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Both males and females of the lions are polygamous and breed throughout the year, but females are usually restricted to one or two adult males of their pride. In captivity, lions often breed every year, but in the wild, they usually breed no more than once in two years. Females are receptive to mating for three or four days within a widely variable reproductive cycle.

Statement 2 is correct: There are four big cats that can roar: lion, tiger, leopard and jaguar - all of which belong to the genus Panthera. In these species, the epihyal bone, part of the voice box, is replaced by a ligament. This can be stretched, creating a larger sound-producing passage and thus a wider range of pitch. The bones of the cheetah’s voice box form a fixed structure, with divided vocal cords that vibrate with both in and out breaths. This structure is the same for all the ’small’ cats. While this design enables these cats to purr continuously, it limits the range of other sounds and prevents them from being able to roar.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Leopards are known for their solitary nature and impressive hunting abilities. They are skilled predators that primarily hunt at night, using their incredible agility and stealth to catch a variety of prey. Leopards are considered opportunistic hunters, adapting and targeting different species based on availability and their specific habitat. To avoid competition and conflicts, leopards establish their own territories, marking them with scent and claw marks on trees. Male leopards will fiercely defend their territories if they overlap with other males.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: In Ryotwari system the government revenue was a fixed amount, irrespective of crop output, and was to be paid in cash. Thus during periods of bad crops or low prices the peasants were forced to pay the land revenue, even if it required borrowing from moneylenders.

Statement 2 is correct: In the Zamindari system the revenue was invariable, regardless of the harvest, and had to be paid punctually. According to the Sunset Law, if payment did not come in by sunset of the specified date, the zamindari was liable to be auctioned.

Explanation

Sustainable aviation fuel (SAF), hydrogen and electric all have a role to play in the decarbonization of aviation. SAF is vitally important as it can address decarbonization of fuel over its lifecycle, and this is now available to be used in all turbine engines including in mid and long-range aircraft. Therefore, understanding the feedstock landscape as well as the technology pathways is integral to maximising the production and supply of SAF. The production of SAF starts with one of five main families of raw materials:

Corn grain Oil seeds Algae Other fats, oils, and greases Agricultural residues Forestry residues Wood mill waste Municipal solid waste streams Wet wastes (manures, wastewater treatment sludge) Dedicated energy crops.

Explanation

Distributed energy resources, or DERs, are small-scale energy systems that power a nearby location. DERs can be connected to electric grids or isolated, with energy flowing only to specific sites or functions. DERs include both energy generation technologies and energy storage systems. When energy generation occurs through distributed energy re-sources, it is referred to as distributed generation. Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include:

Roof top solar photovoltaic units Wind generating units Battery storage Batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid Combined heat and power units, or tri-generation units that also utilise waste heat to provide cooling Biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural by-products. Open and closed cycle gas turbines Reciprocating engines (diesel, oil) Hydro and mini-hydro schemes Fuel cells.

Explanation

Inter-State quarantine is in the Union List (entry 81) of 7th schedule. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:

Inter-State trade and commerce is a Union subject (entry 42) under the Union List. Inter-State migration is a Union Subject (entry 81) under the Union List. Corporation tax is a Union subject (entry 85) under the Union List.

Explanation

Option 1 is correct: Insurance companies in India can trade in both Corporate Bonds and Government Securities (G-Secs). The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) allows insurance companies to invest in Government Bonds, Corporate Bonds, and Infrastructure Bonds, subject to prescribed limits.

Option 2 is correct: Pension funds are allowed to invest in both government securities (G-Secs) and corporate bonds. For example, the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) permits pension funds under the National Pension System (NPS) to invest in Government Bonds, State Development Loans (SDLs), and Corporate Debt. Since pension funds focus on long-term stability, they often prefer G-Secs, which offer secure and steady returns for retirement benefits.

Option 3 is correct: Retail investors can trade in both corporate bonds and government securities. The RBI’s Retail Direct Scheme enables individuals to directly buy and sell government securities. Corporate bonds are available for trading on the debt segments of BSE and NSE, and retail investors can access them through debt mutual funds, bond markets, and stock exchanges.

Explanation

The North Eastern Council (NEC) is not a constitutional body but a statutory organization established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971, as amended in 2002. Initially, NEC was an Advisory Body for the North Eastern Region (NER). NEC’s composition was revised by the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002. After the amendment:

Option 1 is correct: The Governors of the eight North Eastern States are members of the NEC.

Option 2 is correct: The Chief Ministers of the eight North Eastern States are also members of the NEC.

Option 3 is correct: The President nominates three members to the NEC.

Option 4 is incorrect: The Union Home Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the NEC but is not considered a member under Section 3 of the Act.

Explanation

A financial instrument is a contractual agreement that creates a financial asset for one party and a corresponding financial liability or equity instrument for another party. Options 1 and 3 are correct:

Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) are considered financial instruments as they represent a portfolio of assets (stocks, bonds, or commodities) and are traded on stock exchanges. They are intangible assets that provide claims to future cash flows or ownership interests. A currency swap is a financial instrument used in international finance. It involves the exchange of principal and interest payments in different currencies between two parties, helping manage foreign exchange risks. Option 2 is incorrect: Motor vehicles are not financial instruments. They are physical assets used for transportation and do not represent any contractual claim to future cash flows or monetary value in financial markets.

Explanation

The United States government issues Treasury Bonds (T-Bonds) as a way to borrow money. These bonds are considered one of the safest investments globally because they are backed by the full faith and credit of the US government.

Statement I is incorrect: Even in a case of a default by the U.S. government, U.S. Treasury bondholders retain their legal right to payment. A default would generally cause delays or restructuring but would not cancel bondholder claims. The U.S. government remains legally obligated to repay its debts, and investors can seek legal remedies, though enforcement is complex for sovereign debt. If the government misses payments, both American and foreign bondholders can sue in U.S. courts, such as district courts or the U.S. Court of Federal Claims, to enforce their claims.

Statement II is correct: US Treasury Bonds are not backed by physical assets like gold, land, or commodities. Instead, their value rests on the trust and faith in the US government’s financial stability and its ability to repay debts through taxation and economic growth. The US dollar’s status as the world’s re-serve currency further reinforces this trust, but there are no tangible assets pledged against US debt.