UPSC 2021 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

Savanna Biome is a particular kind of grassland biome made up of vast expanses of open grassland with few trees. Tropical and Semi-tropical savannas are two kinds of savannas. All continents excluding Antarctica have grasslands. The largest savannas are found close to the equator in Africa.

Option (c) is correct:

Frequent wildfires both natural (lightning-induced) and human-induced prevent the establishment of dense forests. Fires destroy young tree saplings before they can mature into large trees, thus maintaining grasslands. Savanna fires are a key ecological process that helps maintain the balance between grasslands and scattered trees. Large herbivores like elephants, zebras, and antelopes feed on young tree shoots, preventing forests from expanding. Grazing by animals ensures that tree cover remains sparse which allows grasses to dominate. Studies on African and Indian savannas have shown that herbivory is a critical limiting factor for tree growth. The limited and unpredictable rainfall pattern allows grasses to outcompete trees for available water. Savannas experience distinct wet and dry seasons leading to limited water availability. Trees require consistent moisture to grow into dense forests but in savannas prolonged dry periods hinder tree survival. Burrowing animals such as aardvarks and rodents and termites play a role in soil aeration and nutrient cycling. But they do not significantly prevent tree growth or forest development. Trees can grow in varied soil types and soil properties alone do not explain forest suppression.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Global Ocean Commission (GOC) does not grant licenses for seabed mining. The Inter-national Seabed Authority (ISA) established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) is responsible for granting licenses for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.

Statement 2 is correct: India has been granted licenses by the International Seabed Authority (ISA) for seabed mineral exploration in international waters. India has received a contract to explore polymetallic sulfides in the Indian Ocean Ridge. The Indian Ministry of Earth Sciences and NIOT (National Institute of Ocean Technology) are leading the project.

Statement 3 is correct: Rare earth elements (REEs) are found in deep-sea sediments, polymetallic nodules, and hydrothermal vents in international waters. These include elements like neo-dymium, yttrium, and dysprosium, which are essential for electronics, renewable energy, and defense industries.

Explanation

India’s tribal languages reflect its rich cultural diversity, with hundreds of languages spoken by indigenous communities. These languages belong to various linguistic families, including Indo-Aryan and Dravidian. There are also other smaller language families, such as Austroasiatic (Ex-Munda languages) and Tibeto-Burman (Ex-Bodo). Examples of Tribal Languages include Halbi (Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra), Ho (Jharkhand, Odisha), Kui (Odisha), Gondi (Central India), Korku (Madhya Pradesh), Kurukh (Odisha, Jharkhand), and Bhili (Rajasthan, Gujarat).

Option (d) is correct:

Halbi is spoken in Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Maharashtra. It is an Indo-Aryan language influenced by Marathi and Odia. It is used by the Halba tribe and is recognized as a lingua franca among tribal communities in Bastar region. Ho is spoken in Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Chhattisgarh. It belongs to the Munda language family which a branch of the Austroasiatic languages. The Ho tribe is an ethnic Munda community which primarily speaks this language. It has its own script called Warang Citi developed by tribal scholar Lako Bodra. Kui is a spoken mainly in Odisha by the Kandha (Kondh) tribe. It is a Dravidian language closely related to Gondi and Telugu. The Kandha tribe has a rich oral traditio and Kui plays a significant role in their cultural expressions.

Explanation

Mitochondrial diseases are a group of genetic disorders caused by dysfunction in the mitochondria, the cell’s energy-producing structures.

Statement 1 is correct: Mitochondrial Replacement Therapy (MRT) is an advanced reproductive technique designed to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to child. MRT involves replacing defective mitochondria in an egg or embryo with healthy mitochondria from a donor. This can be achieved through methods such as:

Spindle Transfer: Performed before fertilization, where the nuclear DNA from the mother’s egg is transferred to a donor egg with healthy mitochondria, followed by fertilization. Pronuclear Transfer: Conducted after fertilization, where the pronuclei (genetic material) from a fertilized egg are transferred into a donor zygote that has healthy mitochondria. These techniques aim to ensure that the resulting child inherits healthy mitochondria, thereby preventing mitochondrial diseases.

Statement 2 is correct: A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Mitochondria are unique organelles within cells that have their own DNA, known as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA). Unlike nuclear DNA, which is inherited from both parents, mtDNA is typically inherited exclusively from the mother. This is because the mitochondria in the sperm are usually destroyed or degraded after fertilization, and thus do not contribute to the embryo’s mitochondrial pool. Consequently, if a mother has a mitochondrial disease (caused by mutations in her mtDNA), there is a risk that she can pass it on to her children, while fathers do not pass on mtDNA to their offspring, and thus do not transmit mitochondrial diseases.

Explanation

The Constitution of India addresses the issue of citizenship in Part II (Articles 5 to 11). It provides a framework for determining who would be considered a citizen of India on January 26, 1950.

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Constitution provides for single citizenship, where citizens owe allegiance only to the Indian Union. Indian citizenship ends if a person voluntarily acquired foreign citizenship. A person can acquire only one domicile by choice by taking up fixed residence in a state or region.

Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, the Head of the State is the President and as per the Indian constitution both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalised citizen are eligible for the office of President.

Statement 3 is incorrect: A foreigner who has previously received Indian citizenship, can be deprived of his citizenship. The Citizenship Act (1955) provides for acquisition and loss of citizenship. Indian citizenship can be terminated in cases where: the citizenship is obtained by fraud, shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India, unlawfully exchanged goods or information with the enemy while at war, two years of imprisonment in any country within five years of registration or naturalisation, been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.

Explanation

ACE2 (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme 2) is a protein on the surface of many cell types and tissues, including the lungs, heart, blood vessels, kidneys, liver, and gastrointestinal tract. It serves as the entry point for certain coronaviruses, notably SARS-CoV-2, the virus responsible for COVID-19. The virus’s spike protein binds to the ACE2 receptor, facilitating its entry into host cells and leading to infection.

Explanation

In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), the Supreme Court ruled that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. The Court emphasized that privacy is integral to personal dignity and autonomy. It further held that privacy must be protected from arbitrary state actions, marking a significant expansion of constitutional rights in India.

Explanation

The accounts of foreign travelers such as Abdur Razzak from Persia, Nicolo de Conte from Italy, Fernao Nuniz, Domingo Paes and Duarte Barbosa from Portugal, provide us with a valuable historical lens of the Vijayanagara Kingdom. Fernao Nuniz, a Portuguese traveler who visited the Vijayanagara Empire during the reign of Achyuta Deva Raya, noted that women in the empire held prominent roles. He observed that they were trained in various skills, including wrestling, swordsmanship, soothsaying, astrology, and accounting. These women were actively involved in the kingdom’s political, social, and cultural life. In addition to fine arts like music, some also received education in literature.

Explanation

Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. If a legislation grants the executive or administrative authorities unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power, it violates the principle of rule of law and equality. This is because such unchecked discretion can lead to arbitrariness, which goes against the very essence of equality and fairness under Article 14. Therefore, any legislation with unrestrained discretionary powers could be deemed unconstitutional under Article 14.

Explanation

Post-Gupta India saw the rise of regional kingdoms and fragmented political power. This period marked a decline in centralized rule, leading to a more decentralized political landscape.

Option (b) is correct: Due to Hun invasions, the Gupta kingdom was weakened in its power and several independent kingdoms arose in north India such as Yashodharman of Malwa, the Maukharis of Kanauj, the Maitrakas in Saurashtra and others. Pushyabhuti of Thanesar (Haryana) also carved an independent state around that time. After the coming of Tomars of Delhi in the 8th century, later by the 11-12th century, long after the decline of Gupta’s, Chauhans of Rajasthan, Solankis of Gujarat, Parmars of Malwa, and Chandels of Bundelkhand started ruling north India. It is only during the 14th CE, the Yadavas of Devagiri (Maharashtra) became an important ruling dynasty of Deccan.